Answer:
○ C. 
Step-by-step explanation:
Wherever the graph intersects the x-axis is considered your zero [x-intercept], therefore you have your answer:
![\displaystyle [0, 0], [2, 0], and\: [4, 0]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%20%5B0%2C%200%5D%2C%20%5B2%2C%200%5D%2C%20and%5C%3A%20%5B4%2C%200%5D)
I am joyous to assist you at any time.
1. Divide both sides by 2
2. Add 16 to each side
Answer x > -2
B: 3 and 4 because they both do not have an = sign
Answer:
1/26=4/104
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of pulling a diamond if completely shuffled properly, is a 1/4. Because there are 4 suits. This is only if, there are no jokers.
And the probability of pulling a jack, is a 4/51. Because there are 4 jacks out of the 51 cards, but you already pulled out a diamond card, so you take 1 out.
Multiply them together, and you will get 4/104 = 1/26
There is a 1/26 chance of pulling out a diamond card, then a jack.