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dezoksy [38]
3 years ago
15

The stock of Canadian Ski Wear is currently trading at $45 a share and the equity beta of the company is estimated to be 1.3. Th

e company is expected to pay a dividend of $1.50 a share next year, and this dividend is expected to grow at a rate of 4% per year. The rate on the 10-year U.S. Treasury bond is 4% and you estimate the market risk premium to be 5%. Using the CAPM, what is the company’s cost of equity?
Business
1 answer:
Vesnalui [34]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

10.5%

Explanation:

In this question, we use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). The formula is shown below:

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium

= 4% + 1.3 × 5%

= 4% + 6.5%

= 10.5%

The market risk premium = Market rate of return - risk free rate of return.

The dividend and per share is not relevant for the computation part. Hence, ignored it

You might be interested in
If a good is inferior, then an increase in income will result in a(n) a. increase in the demand for the good. b. decrease in the
Paul [167]

Answer:

b. decrease in the demand for the good. 

Explanation:

An inferior good is a good whose demand falls when income increases and rises when income decreases.

A decrease in demand would lead to a leftward shift of the demand curve.

Inferior goods contrasts to a normal good. A normal good is a good whose demand increases when income rises and falls when income reduces.

Only a change in the price of a good leads to movement along the demand curve for that good.

I hope my answer helps you

7 0
3 years ago
Equity financing (or funding) means ________.
Zanzabum

Answer:

A) exchanging partial ownership in a firm

Explanation:

Equity is the basic source of fund for any corporation, it the most initial phase in which equity is issued in exchange of a share of ownership in the company. For this the equity holder pays money to the company.

In this manner there is an ownership distributed for the share of money needed by the company.

This does not involve any statutory return payment on behalf of company in later future. As against it in case of loan, it needs to be repaid.

Equity form of funds do not demand any repayment.

7 0
3 years ago
Onslow Co. purchases a used machine for $178,000 cash on January 2 and readies it for use the next day at a $2,840 cost. On Janu
AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

Onslow Co.

Journal Entries:

1. Jan. 2: Debit Equipment $178,000

Credit Cash $178,000

To record the cash payment for equipment purchase.

2. Jan. 3: Debit Equipment $4,000

Credit Cash $4,000

To record the cash payment for readying the equipment for use.

3. Dec. 31: Debit Depreciation Expense $28,000

Credit Accumulated Depreciation $28,000

To record depreciation expense for the first year.

4. Dec. 31, Year 5: Debit Equipment Disposal$178,000

Credit Equipment $178,000

To transfer the equipment account to the Equipment Disposal account.

Debit Accumulated Depreciation $140,000

Credit Equipment Disposal $140,000

To transfer accumulated depreciation to the Equipment Disposal account.

a) Debit Cash $15,000

Credit Equipment Disposal $15,000

To record the cash proceeds from sale of equipment.

Debit Loss on Sale of Equipment $23,000

Credit Equipment Disposal $23,000

To record the loss on Equipment Disposal.

b) Debit Cash $50,000

Credit Equipment Disposal $50,000

To record the cash proceeds from sale of equipment.

Debit Sale of Equipment $12,000

Credit Gain on Sale of Equipment $12,000

To record the gain on Equipment Disposal.

c) Debit Cash $30,000

Credit Equipment Disposal $30,000

To record the cash proceeds from insurance company.

Debit Loss on Disposal $8,000

Credit Equipment Disposal $8,000

To record the loss on Equipment Disposal.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

January 2: Cost of used machine = $178,000

January 3: Readying costs = $4,000 ($2,840 + $1,160)

Estimated useful life = 6 years

Estimated salvage value = $14,000

Depreciable amount = $168,000 ($182,000 - $14,000)

Depreciation method = straight-line method

Annual depreciation expense = $28,000 ($168,000/6)

Accumulated depreciation at December 31, Year 5 = $140,000 ($28,000*5)

Disposal date = December 31, Year 5

Journal Entries Analysis:

1. Jan. 2: Equipment $178,000 Cash $178,000

2. Jan. 3: Equipment $4,000 Cash $4,000

3. Dec. 31: Depreciation Expense $28,000 Accumulated Depreciation $28,000

4. Dec. 31, Year 5: Equipment Disposal $178,000 Equipment $178,000

Accumulated Depreciation $140,000 Equipment Disposal $140,000

a) Cash $15,000 Equipment Disposal $15,000

Loss on Sale of Equipment $23,000 Equipment Disposal $23,000

b) Cash $50,000 Equipment Disposal $50,000

Equipment Disposal $12,000 Gain on Sale of Equipment $12,000

c) Cash $30,000 Equipment Disposal $30,000

Loss on Disposal $8,000 Equipment Disposal $8,000

5 0
3 years ago
This is a classic retirement problem. A time line will help in solving it. Your friend is celebrating her 35th birthday today an
xeze [42]

Answer:

a. $21,725.65

b. $19,385

c. 27,421.32

Explanation:

Savings = 125,000

Annuity Formula :

(\frac{1}{1.07})^{30} [  \frac{125,000}{0.07} ( 1 - \frac{1}{1.07 ^}^{20} ) ] = \frac{A}{0.07} ( 1 - \frac{1}{0.07 ^ } ^{30} )

Solving the equation we get,

A  = $21,725.65

7 0
3 years ago
Manufacturing cost data for Orlando Company, which uses a job order cost system, are presented below. Indicate the missing amoun
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

a=   54796

h=  80,824

d=117916  

i=67915.68  

e=$ 352196  

b=  58,800  

f= 373496

j=  234500

c= 15100

k=   1900

g=3721596

Explanation:

Orlando Company

Manufacturing Cost Data

                                                 Case A          Case B       Case C

Direct materials used                 (a)               $91,200    $69,000

a=149,800 - 42,804-  52,200     54796

Direct labor                               52,200         143,800          (h)

$69,000 +x+0.82h= 216100

1.82h= 216100-69000

h= 147100/1.82= 80,824                                                     80,824

Manufacturing overhead applied 42,804      (d)                   (i)

d=82% of 143,800=117916                                 117916

i=82% of 80824 =  67915.68                                                 67915.68                      

Total manufacturing costs 149,800                 (e)              216,100

e=$91,200+ 143,800+ 117916                              352196

Work in process 1/1/14              (b)                21,300           18,400

b=208,600- 149,800                   58,800

Total cost of work in process 208,600         (f)                   (j)

f=352196+ 21,300                                           373496

j=216,100 + 18,400                                                               234500

Work in process 12/31/14             (c)               11,900            (k)

c=208,600 - 193,500                     15100

k=234500 -232,600                                                            1900

Cost of goods manufactured 193,500           (g)             232,600

g=373496- 11,900                                         3721596

The formulas used are given below.

Total Manufacturing Cost = Direct Materials + Direct Labor + Factory Overheads

Total cost of work in process= Total manufacturing costs+ Opening Work in process

Cost of goods manufactured= Total cost of work in process - Closing Work in process

In each of these if two amounts are known we can find the third one.We can also do rearrange these to find the required amounts.The calculation of each of the missing amount has been done next to it.

5 0
3 years ago
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