NO it is not becuase it is just a Dream
The option which explains one way in which the Byzantine Empire continued the cultural traditions of the Romans is the second one - by using Latin as the primary written language, at least until the 7th century when they started using Greek.
A is a weird option - how can adapting Greek ideas be a continuation of Roman traditions? C is insulting. D is incorrect as Byzantine Empire didn't have gladiators.
At 1950s it was different then today today we have many things at 1950s they didn't have many things they didn't have cars things were different then today today it's change it's not 1950s
Explanation:
i think
The acts requried all of colony's import to be either bought out from england or resold by english merchants in england
