Answer: tan^2ø
(i’m gonna use ø as theta because i can’t find it)
explanation:
sin^2ø-1=cos^2ø because of one of the pythagorean identities
sin^2ø/cos^2ø is tan^2ø because sin/cos is tan- opposite/hypotenuse divided by adjacent/hypotenuse is opposite/adjacent
hope that helps- you can comment if you need any more explanation :)
18 or 3 * 6 because to find out how many possible contengencys you muktiplyy the factors.
Answer:
The beam will bend by 50 mm with a mass of 100kg?
Step-by-step explanation:
The first step in solving the problem of direct variation is setting up the relation mathematically.
We can do this as follows:
The bending of the beam varies directly as its mass.

here is the symbol representing direct variation. To remove this and replace it with an equality sign, we have to introduce a constant of proportionality, k

k = 20 /40 = 0.5
We can now use this to find the distance the beam will bend with a mass of 100kg?
This will be

There fore, the beam will bend by 50 mm with a mass of 100kg?