Answer: 120
42/x = 35/100
(42)(100) = 35(x)
4200 = 35x
120 = x
Answer:
512
Step-by-step explanation:
Suppose we ask how many subsets of {1,2,3,4,5} add up to a number ≥8. The crucial idea is that we partition the set into two parts; these two parts are called complements of each other. Obviously, the sum of the two parts must add up to 15. Exactly one of those parts is therefore ≥8. There must be at least one such part, because of the pigeonhole principle (specifically, two 7's are sufficient only to add up to 14). And if one part has sum ≥8, the other part—its complement—must have sum ≤15−8=7
.
For instance, if I divide the set into parts {1,2,4}
and {3,5}, the first part adds up to 7, and its complement adds up to 8
.
Once one makes that observation, the rest of the proof is straightforward. There are 25=32
different subsets of this set (including itself and the empty set). For each one, either its sum, or its complement's sum (but not both), must be ≥8. Since exactly half of the subsets have sum ≥8, the number of such subsets is 32/2, or 16.
We will use angle sum property of triangle here
sum of three angles of triangle =180
35.5+82.6 + third angle =180
118.1 + third angle =180
third angle =180-118.1 = 61.9
third angle =61.9 degrees (option C)
( n + 7 ) x 3
Hope it is right
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Ok, so if there is no number in front of a variable (the letters), there is always a one. So you multiply them like this:
7 x 1b x 4 x 1a x 2 = <em>56ba</em>
1c x 5 x 1b x 4 x 1a = 20cba
Since there is only a 1 in front of the variables, you can basically just multiply the numbers without variables and then mutiply that times one. Don't forget to add the variables into the answer.
6 x 1p x 4 x 5 x 1w = 120pw
1t x 2 x 1t x 1s = 
Please give me brainliest if I helped!
