The set of assumptions underlying his behavior would lead to
a diagnosis of non purging type of bulimia nervosa. A purging type falls under
the subtypes of bulimia nervosa in which the guy who is suspected of having a
non purging type is having to compensate with binge eating and in the same
time, the person compensates dieting with exercising excessively.
When the YTM is lower than the bond's coupon rate, the bond's market value exceeds its par value (premium bond). Bonds are selling at a discount if their coupon rate is smaller than their YTM. A bond is trading at par if its coupon rate is equal to its yield to maturity (YTM).
<h3>What is the cost of a $1,000 par value, three year, zero-coupon bond?</h3>
(a) A three-year zero-coupon bond with a face value of $1,000 would have a present value (or price) of 874.69 with a yield of 4.564 percent.
<h3>What is the yield to maturity on a discount bond with a $1000 face value that will mature in a year and sell for $800?</h3>
The yield to maturity is determined using the following formula with the current price of $800: 800 = 1000 / (yield to maturity plus one) Yield to maturity Equals 1 plus yield. Yield until maturity equals 25%
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Answer:
Benefit: 10,000
Explanation:
Salaries terminated: 390,000
decrease in misc overhead 30,000
outsourcing tariff: (410,000)
Benefit: 10,000
The most questions most important issue is how to account the 120,000 assistant and the fixed cost that will be allocate to other department.
The truth is, this are not relevant cost.
As the company would hire this assistant in the near future if the H/R is not outsource as the company won't keep them if they aren't useful.
Also the allocate cost are cost from other operations not related to human resources. So ust be disregard from the calcualtion.
We should consider only the explicit decrease, which are the salaries and fewer tracable overhead.
Based on the details given, the following are true:
- a. Value of bond = $806.09
- b. Your friend should invest in the bond with $1,000 face value
<h3>Value of Bonds </h3>
First find coupon:
= 10% x 1,000
= $100
Bond A
<em>= (Coupon x Present value interest factor of annuity, 13%, 15 years) + Face value of bond / ( 1 + 13%)¹⁵</em>
= ( 100 x 6.462) + (1,000 / 1.13¹⁵)
= $806.09
Bond B
= Face value - Current value
= 1,000 - 180
= $820
In conclusion, Bond B is overvalued so your friend should pick Bond A.
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