Answer:
B. Most people south of the United States still speak Spanish, or a language that is influenced by the Spanish language.
Explanation:
It is not A, because Spain was a Catholic country, thereby, when creating colonies and dealing with the natives of Central and South America, they converted the natives to Catholicism, not Protestants.
It is not C, because Spain did not technically settle much of the United States, only reaching towards the south of the US (around present-day Texas), and temporarily in the Louisiana Purchase after it acquired the territory from France (only to give it back). Most Spanish speaking regions are found simply in the south, or from further immigrations later on in history.
It is not D, for again, the Spanish did not extensively settle what is now known as the United States. The United States draws most of it's language and culture from Great Britain, therefore having the United Kingdom as the ancestery of choice (during that time and age).
Answer:
invasion, occupation, division, and colonisation of African territory by European powers during a short period ... In the later years of the 19th century, the European nations transitioned from "informal imperialism"
Explanation:
The Great Depression was an economic downfall that forced many families into poverty. In October of 1928, there was a major stock market crash which fueled the beginning of the depression.
The British, Chinese, Russian, and all those countries on the other side considered this a “new world” but the natives would have taken offense because it wasn’t actually new, they had been living there for a while.
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Answer:
<em>Etymology. The English noun tyrant appears in Middle English use, via Old French, from the 1290s. The word derives from Latin tyrannus, meaning "illegitimate ruler", and this in turn from the Greek τύραννος tyrannos "monarch, ruler of a polis"; tyrannos in its turn has a Pre-Greek origin, perhaps from Lydian.</em>
