The answer is not infinity.
<span>Consider FBDs of each mass with the direction of motion of m1 as positive </span>
<span>m1*g-T=m1*a </span>
<span>T-m2*g=m2*a </span>
<span>assuming mass less cord and mass less, friction less pulley </span>
<span>the accelerations are equal </span>
<span>a=(T-m2*g)/m2 </span>
<span>m1*g-T=m1*(T-m2*g)/m2 </span>
<span>do some algebra </span>
<span>m1*g-T=m1*T/m2-m1*g </span>
<span>2*m1*g=T*(1+m1/m2) </span>
<span>2*m1*m2*g=T*(m2+m1) </span>
<span>2*m1*m2*g/(m2+m1)=T </span>
<span>now take the limit of T as m1->infinity </span>
<span>T=2*m2*g </span>
<span>this is intuitively correct since the maximum acceleration of m1 is -g, the cord transfers the acceleration to m2, which is being acted on by gravity downward and an upward acceleration of g. Therefore the maximum acceleration of m1 is 2*g upward. </span>
Answer:
1, 1
Step-by-step explanation:
i hope this answer is correct
Answer:
i think its 70 but i might be wrong pls let me know in the comments if i am right or wrong
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: 5
Step-by-step explanation: I got it right