V = 1/3 πh(R^2 +r^2 + R*r)
V = 1/3 (3.14)(14) (4.2^2 + 2.5^2 + 4.2 * 2.5)
V = 1/3 (3.14)(14) (17.64 + 6.25 + 10.5)
V = 1/3 (3.14)(14) (34.39)
V = 503.93
Because i'm using π = 3.14
So answer is B. 503.77
Answer:
21 = n
Step-by-step explanation:
-5 - 5
________________
-⅓<em>n</em> = -7
____ __
-⅓ -⅓
21 = <em>n</em>
* Dividing by a fraction is the exact same as multiplying by its <em>multiplicative</em><em> </em><em>inverse</em>:
I am joyous to assist you anytime.
Answer:
The answer is B and BTW AMC STOCKS ARE RISING
Step-by-step explanation:
Hi there
The formula of the present value of annuity ordinary is
Pv=pmt [(1-(1+r)^(-n))÷r]
So we need to solve for pmt (the amount of the annual withdrawals)
PMT=pv÷ [(1-(1+r)^(-n))÷r]
Pv present value 65000
R interest rate 0.055
N time 10 years
PMT=65,000÷((1−(1+0.055)^(
−10))÷(0.055))
=8,623.40....answer
Hope it helps
