Answer:
nope
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is not infinity.
<span>Consider FBDs of each mass with the direction of motion of m1 as positive </span>
<span>m1*g-T=m1*a </span>
<span>T-m2*g=m2*a </span>
<span>assuming mass less cord and mass less, friction less pulley </span>
<span>the accelerations are equal </span>
<span>a=(T-m2*g)/m2 </span>
<span>m1*g-T=m1*(T-m2*g)/m2 </span>
<span>do some algebra </span>
<span>m1*g-T=m1*T/m2-m1*g </span>
<span>2*m1*g=T*(1+m1/m2) </span>
<span>2*m1*m2*g=T*(m2+m1) </span>
<span>2*m1*m2*g/(m2+m1)=T </span>
<span>now take the limit of T as m1->infinity </span>
<span>T=2*m2*g </span>
<span>this is intuitively correct since the maximum acceleration of m1 is -g, the cord transfers the acceleration to m2, which is being acted on by gravity downward and an upward acceleration of g. Therefore the maximum acceleration of m1 is 2*g upward. </span>
First find the slope(m)
Slope= y2-y1/x2-x1= (1-(-5))/(-1-(-2))= 6/1 = 6
Then find the y intercept (move up six and right one from (-1, 1) to get (0, 7)
The y-intercept is y=7
Now make the equation
Y= slope(x) + y-intercept
Y=6x+7
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
First find the airithmatic mean
(-3-5+8+11+13)/5= 4.8
