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Furkat [3]
3 years ago
15

. Eric has another​ get-rich-quick idea, but needs funding to support it. He chooses an​ all-debt funding scenario. He will borr

ow ​$1 comma 823 from​ Wendy, who will charge him 4​% on the loan. He will also borrow ​$1 comma 533 from​ Bebe, who will charge him 6​% on the​ loan, and ​$644 from​ Shelly, who will charge him 12​% on the loan. What is the weighted average cost of capital for​ Eric? What is the weighted average cost of capital for​ Eric?
Business
1 answer:
Sergio039 [100]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

6.04%

Explanation:

The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) can be described as the average rate that is expected that a business will pay to finance its assets to all holders of its security.

The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) can be estimated as the summation of the products of the weight of each loan in the total loan and their interest rate for this question as follows:

Total loan amount = $1,823 + $1,533 + $644 = 4,000

Weight of loan from Wendy = $1,823 / $4,000 = 0.46, or 46%

Weight of loan from Bebe = $1,533 / $4,000 = 0.38, or 38%

Weight of loan from Shelly = $644 / $4,000 = 0.16, or 16%

Weighted average cost of capital  = (46% * 4%) + (38% * 6%) + (16% * 12%) = 6.04%.

Therefore, the weighted average cost of capital for​ Eric is 6.04%.

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If an organizational manual exists, a description of the division of work and the position shown on the organization chart will
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If an organizational manual exists, a description of the division of work and the position shown on the organization chart will be given in the manual or will be located on the company's intranet.

A) True
7 0
3 years ago
On June 19, Don Co., a U.S. company, sold and delivered merchandise on a 30-day account to Cologne GmbH, a German corporation, f
nirvana33 [79]

Answer: $197,600

Explanation: Don Co is making a sale to Cologne GmbH and on the date of the transaction there is an exchange rate called the spot rate. Don Co will record in its books the value of the transaction on the set date at the spot rate which is:

200,000 euros @ .988

= $197,600

on the date of the settlement of the debt by Cologne GmbH, the spot rate is also considered which will be 200,[email protected] .995 = $199,000

Note that on the payment date, the exchange rate has gone up and now Don Co has a higher receivable value that what is in its book.

the difference of $1,400 ($199,000-$197,600) will now be noted in the books of Don Co as an exchange gain on the transaction.

8 0
3 years ago
7. Valuing semiannual coupon bonds Bonds often pay a coupon twice a year. For the valuation of bonds that make semiannual paymen
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

A = $698,494.97 is the right answer.

And Assuming that interest rates remain constant, the T-note’s price is expected to Increase.

Explanation:

A. $698,494.97

B. $593,720.72

C. $838,193.96

D. $440,051.83

Solution:

First we need to see which among the four options is the correct value.

For that we need to find the rate:

Rate = Yield to Maturity/2

Yield to Maturity = 11%

So,

Rate = 11/2

Rate = 5.5%

Now, we need to find the Nper ( Number of periods for the loan)

Nper = 5 x 2 = 10 years.

Nper = 10 years

Now, we need to find PMT which is a financial function used to calculate the amount to be paid for the loan based on constant payments and interest.

PMT = (3%/2) x par value

PMT = (3%/2)x 1,000,000

PMT = 15000

Now, For future value, we have par value.

So,

Par Value = Future Value = FV = 1,000,000

Now, we have to find the PV = Present Value or the price of the bond.

For this we need to use PV function on excel.

Formula:

Price = - PV(Rate, Nper, PMT, FV)

Plugging the values in Excel like this and we get:

Price = -PV (5.5%,10,15000,1000000)

Price = $698,494.97

Hence, A = $698,494.97 is the right answer.

And Assuming that interest rates remain constant, the T-note’s price is expected to Increase.

4 0
3 years ago
The impairment rule for goodwill involves how many steps?(a)1(b)2(c)3(d)4
Kobotan [32]

Answer: 2 steps

Explanation: While calculating impairment of goodwill following steps should be taken :-

1.In the first step the fair value of the goodwill is compared with its carrying value.

2. In the second step, if the fair value comes to be lower than the carrying value, then it is concluded that there is an impairment and then it is computed accordingly.

7 0
3 years ago
At the present time, Andalusian Limited (AL) has 5-year noncallable bonds with a face value of $1,000 that are outstanding. Thes
maw [93]

Answer:

2.69%

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows,

Face value (FV) = $1,000

Time period = 5 years

Present Value (PV) = $1,438.04

Coupon rate = 14%

Payment (pmt) = 14% × $1,000 = $140

So, by using excel function find YTM, we get

YTM = 4.13%

So, After Tax cost = Rate ( 1 - tax rate)

= 4.13% ( 1 - 35%)

= 4.13% × 65%

= 2.685% or 2.69%

Excel function is attached below.

3 0
3 years ago
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