Since angle 1 is opposite of angle 3, this means that angle 1 also measures 105°
Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
this is just to confuse us.
"t" is used instead of "x" (probably because the formula has something to do with "time"). but it does not matter.
and 3 different functional definitions have been given based on the value of the argument "t".
we need the functional value for t=2.
is 2 = 8 ? no. therefore the first definition does not apply.
is 2 = 10 ? no. therefore the second definition does not apply either.
is 2 unequal to 8 or 10 ? yes, 2 is 2 and not 8 and not 10.
so, the third definition applies :
f(2) = 2² - 3×2 + 2 = 4 - 6 + 2 = 0
Answer:
For 1 there is causationand there is correlation because they found that if people have a higher income, they will buy a more expensive plan so one cause another
the second question, there is no correlation because it doesn’t matter how many samples they provide, people still buy the same amount
Answer =124
4+8+16+32+64=124
I hope this helped! :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer is 99. I am pretty sure.
