Answer:
The effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.
The error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.
Explanation:
Let the amount of the commission expense be xxxx.
At the end of 2003, the journal entries should have been as follows:
Debit Commission expense for xxxx
Credie Commission payable for xxxx
Also, we have:
Working capital = Current assets – Current liabilities ………… (1)
From equation (1), current liabilities are understated because commission payable which was not recorded is an item under current liabilities. Since the current liabilities are understated, that indicates that the working capital in equation is overstated. Therefore, the effect of this error on 2003 ending working capital is that it overstated the ending 2003 working capital.
When the 2003 commission expense in the entries above was paid in 2004, it would have been recognized as an expense. This made the error to counterbalance. This implies that the 2004 ending retained earnings balance is still correct despite that there are errors in the earnings of the two years. Therefore, the error does not have effect on the 2004 ending retained earnings balance.
The company is expressing its key corporate value with a slogan is the Ritz-Carlton using to express its corporate culture.
Explanation:
The fundamental beliefs about which your organisation and your actions are founded are corporation values, also recognised as corporate values or fundamental values.
They are the concepts that your company uses to control its internal investigations and customer interactions.
Your core values if established must be strong and uncompromising – a guideline instead of a suggestion. They might affect each aspect of your business, from benefits for employees and culture throughout the work environment to marketing techniques and customer support.
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.
If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.
False. Gpd was not designed to assess welfare
If something goes wrong, the company will make sure you're not completely screwed.
