<span><span><span>First of all, we should remember that for most of the "mid-1800s" (however one defines this) African Americans in the South were mostly enslaved rather than simply suffering discrimination. However, even those African Americans who were not enslaved were discriminated against.There are many examples of this discrimination. Free blacks in almost every state (even in the North) could not vote. In much of the South, it was illegal to educate any African American, even...</span></span></span>
Yes because freedman did the same as Lincoln
Answer: A. It banned colonial assembly.
Explanation:
The British government viewed the Colony of Massachusetts as a threat due to its continued defiance of British mandates and its seemingly leading role in the rebellion of the other colonies to British directives as well.
The last straw to the British was the Boston Tea Part after which Parliament passed the Massachusetts Government Act of 1774 which placed Massachusetts directly under the control of a Royal governor who had absolute powers and suspended the Colonial assembly in order to remove any illusion of self-governance the people had.
No Gore did not win a mandate in 2000. He had only 48% of the popular vote which is not considered as a victory. He also lost many critical states which meant that he was not qualified to be president.
Clinton failed to have a majority vote in 1992. However, he did win a plurality of the states and was suited to be president per the Electoral College.
Hope this helps you :P