Answer:
In general, the higher the total asset turnover and the lower the capital intensity ratio, the more efficient the overall asset management of the firm will be.
Explanation:
Asset Turnover = Net Sales / Total Asset
Capital Intensity = Total Asset / Net Sales
According to the above formulas most efficient situation will be to increase the asset turnover and decrease the capital intesity ratio because they are reciprocal to each other, so thses will behave inversly with each other. Higher turnover means the higher sales using total asset and lower capital intensity ratio means asset are lower timesto the net sales which is an efficient use of asset.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
According to an article published on modernhealthcare.com on Feb-2019, around 33% of total health care spending goes to hospital care. 33% calculates as to one-third of total health care spending portion.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": rationalization.
Explanation:
Rationalization refers to the restructuring of a company in terms of changing its operational processes, strategy, or corporate size on an attempt of increasing its efficiency. That stage is reached by reducing costs and increasing profits. The introduction of a new product could push a firm to rationalize whether to expand or cut part of its operations.
The correct answer is letter B
Answer:
True
Explanation:
To illustrate how the sum-of-the-digits method allocates interest we can use a lease example:
You are the lessor and you will lease a machine during 4 years. The lease requires 4 equal payments of $100,000 at the beginning of the year. After the lease, the asset's salvage value = $0.
The asset's current value = $300,000, so total interests received = $100,000
Using the sum-of-the-digits method, you will allocate interest as follows:
- year 1 = 3/6 x $100,000 = $50,000
- year 2 = 2/6 x $100,000 = $33,333
- year 3 = 1/6 x $100,000 = $17,000
The largest portion of interests is allocated during the beginning of the loan.
