Because we do not have the same reading material as you do, we do not know the solution. In addition to that, you are posting the question in the wrong section. This is an economics question. Refer to your required text for the class for the solution.
The last one :)
Because it’s the answer
1) The probability of rolling a 1 is 10/40 and the probability of rolling a 5 is 6/40. Add these together to get 16/40 which simplifies to 2/5 probability of rolling a 1 or 5.
2) The probability of the spinner landing on section 2 is 36/80 which simplifies to 9/20
3) To find the relative frequency, divide each number by the total number of trials. In this case we're only look at the clubs so divide 8/40, which is 0.2 or 20%
4) There were 60 trials total and since we're finding the relative frequency of red, divide 13/60 which is 0.216 rounded to 0.22 or 22%
5) The spinner is spun 84 times and it lands on A 14 times so the probability of it landing on A is 14/84 which simplifies to 1/6 or 0.166 rounded to 0.17 or 17%
I hope this helps you!
x = 
± 
i
rearrange the equation and equate to zero
2x² - 6x = - 5 ⇒ 2x² - 6x + 5 = 0
this doesn't factor with integers, hence use the quadratic formula to solve
with a = 2, b = - 6 and c = 5
x = (6 ± √(36 - 40 ) )/4
= (6 ± √(-4) ) / 4
= (6 ± 2i ) / 4
x = ± i
No. If line WX would have been a tangent, the angle VWX should have been 90 degrees. If it would have been 90 degrees, using the pythagoras theorem, side VX should have been 5. But it's not 5, neither angle VWX is 90 degrees nor is the line WX a tangent to the circle
