I think I do not know for sure, but I believe it was "civilization and enlightenment."
Hope this helps please tell me if it did. ;-)
Answer:
Statement 1 is false
Explanation:
King George III could not take away our President because, at the time, we did not have one. The very office and, in fact, the entire American government, had not yet been created.
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
Most likely, going on a hunger strike to raise awareness about racial injustice. Mainstream civil rights activists advocated a nonviolent approach.
