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Cerrena [4.2K]
3 years ago
8

The circle below represents one whole what percent is represented by the shaded area

Mathematics
2 answers:
morpeh [17]3 years ago
7 0

it is 25% hehehheheheheh

Karo-lina-s [1.5K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

one fourth

Step-by-step explanation:

it is split into fourths. if one is shaded, it is one fourth

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178.03 round to the nearest tens
Natali [406]

Answer:

178.0

Step-by-step explanation:


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3 years ago
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What is the answer for <br> (x – 3)2 = 5
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Answer:

x = 11/2 = 5.5

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-6 = 5

2x = 11

x = 11/2 = 5.5

7 0
2 years ago
Jack is learning to play the piano which has 88 keys if there are 12 unique keys in each octave. how amny complete octaves are o
Alenkinab [10]

88/8 =11

Unique key in 1 octave = 12

so, in 11 octave, 12*11 = 132

3 0
3 years ago
The Reeds are moving across the country. Mr. Reed leaves 4.5 hours before Mrs. Reed. If he averages 40mph and she averages 60mph
Setler79 [48]

Mr. Reed DATA:

rate = 40 mph ; time = x 4.5 hrs ; distance = 40x miles

-----

Mrs. Reed DATA:

rate = 60 mph ; time = x hrs ; distance = 60x - 210 miles

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40x = 60x -210

-20x = -210

x = 10.5 hrs

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3 0
2 years ago
you are a freelancer and were offered two gigs. one will pay you $25,000today and the other will pay you $5,000 per year over th
guajiro [1.7K]

The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig

What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?

The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:

PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r

PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown

PMT=annual payment=$5000

r=required return=discount rate=8%

N=number of annual cash flows=6

PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%

PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08

PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08

PV=$5000*0.369830373116895

/0.08

PV=$23,114.40

The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred

Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387

#SPJ1

6 0
1 year ago
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