3 years ago

Why did Churchill give this response to the Munich Agreement?

2 answers:

kramer3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

When Chamberlain signed the Munich agreement, essentially giving Czechoslovakia to the Germans in an attempt to prevent war, Churchill opposed the pact both because it was dishonorable-he said it brought "shame" to England-and because he believed it was only forestalling, not preventing, the war he recognized was inevitable. He thought it would only make the situation worse later to appease Hitler rather than confronting him militarily over Czechoslovakia's Sudetenland..

zaharov [31]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

to condemn the agreement because it was dangerous for Britain

Explanation:

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