When an agency acts in the interests of corporations it is meant to be regulating, this is called Regulatory capture.
<h3>What is regulatory capture?</h3>
In order to ensure that corporations don't act in ways that threaten the public, regulatory agencies are tasked with moniotirung their moves.
When these agencies stop regulating these companies and instead becomes favorable to them, then the agency has been captured in what is called regulatory capture.
Find out more on regulatory capture at brainly.com/question/16180695.
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Answer:
A. Draw the cash flow diagram.
since the site doesn't include a drawing tool I just prepared a table to depict cash flows associated to years one through four:
Year Cash inflows
1 $50 million
2 $60 million
3 $70 million
4 $100 million
B. What is the present worth of the gains for the first three years?
- the present value of the first three cash flows = $50/1.1 + $60/1.1² + $70/1.1³ = $45.45 + $49.59 + $52.59 = $147.63 million
C. What is the present worth of the gains for all four years?
- the present value of the first three cash flows = $50/1.1 + $60/1.1² + $70/1.1³ + $100/1.1⁴ = $45.45 + $49.59 + $52.59 + $68.30 = $215.93 million
D. What is the equivalent uniform annual worth of the gains through year four?
- equivalent annual worth = (NPV x r) / [1 - (1 + r)⁻ⁿ] = ($215.93 x 0.1) / [1 - (1 + 0.1)⁻⁴] = 21.593 / 0.31699 = $68.12 million
Answer:
Im sorry I dont see anything? Theres no pictures.
Answer:
1. $3.18 and $2.55
2. expected annual activity
Explanation:
The computation of the predetermine overhead rate is shown below:
1. For Expected actual activity, it is
= (Overhead for the coming year) ÷ (completed jobs × direct labor hours)
= ($15,600) ÷ (140 jobs × 35 direct labor hours)
= $3.18
And, for Theoretical activity, it is
= (Overhead for the coming year) ÷ (completed jobs × direct labor hours)
= ($15,600) ÷ (175 jobs × 35 direct labor hours)
= $2.55
2. Based on the predetermined overhead rate, the expected actual activity has highest predetermined overhead rate as compared to the theoretical activity
So the Reggie should use the same
Answer:
- The modified internal rate of return for PROJECT A:
b. 24.18%
- The internal rate of return for Project B :
b. 35.27%.
Explanation:
The mean difference between the MIRR and the IRR it's that the IRR assumes that the obtained positive cash flows are reinvested at the same rate at which they were generated, while the MIRR considers that these cashflow will be reinvested at the external rate of return, this case 10%.
Project A Y1 Y2
-$95,000 $65,000 $75,000
24,18% MIRR
Project B -$120,000
Y 1 $64,000
Y 2 $67,000
Y 3 $56,000
Y 4 $45,000
TIR 35,27%
