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ipn [44]
3 years ago
6

You have purchased 1 million shares in a restaurant chain venture. At this zero-stage investment, your company’s assets are $110

,000 plus the idea for your new product. Look back at your restaurant chain venture. Suppose that when you first approach your friendly VC, he decides that your shares are worth only $1.00 each.
a. How many shares will you need to sell to raise the additional $1,370,000?
b. What fraction of the firm will you own after the VC investment? (Round your answer to 1 decimal place.)
Business
1 answer:
Drupady [299]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(a) 1,370,000 shares

(b) 42.19%

Explanation:

Given that,

Shares in a restaurant chain venture = 1,000,000 shares

Price of each share = $1.00

(a) To raise the additional $1,370,000:

Shares will you need to sell:

= Additional amount ÷ Price of each share

= $1,370,000 ÷ $1.00

= 1,370,000 shares

(b) No. of Shares After investment:

= Shares need to sell + Shares in a restaurant chain venture

= 1,370,000 + 1,000,000

= 2,370,000 shares

Therefore, the fraction of the firm will you own after the VC investment:

= (Shares in a restaurant chain venture ÷ No. of Shares After investment) × 100

= (1,000,000 ÷ 2,370,000) × 100

= 0.4219 × 100

= 42.19%

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government-imposed tariffs on Japanese auto imports.

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Binder Corp. has invested in new machinery at a cost of $1,450,000. This investment is expected to produce cash flows of $640,00
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

2.12 years

Explanation:

The calculation of the payback period is given below:

<u> Year           CF             Cumulative CF </u>

0         $(1,450,000)       $(1,450,000)

1            640,000            (810,000)

2           715,250            (94,750)

3           823,330           728,580

4           907,125           1,635,705

Now payback period is  

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7 0
3 years ago
​Ketchen, Inc. provides the following information for​ 2018: Net income ​$290,000 Market price per share of common stock ​$70 pe
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

Earnings per share = Net income/No of ordinary shares outstanding at the end of the year

Earnings per share = $290,000/240,000 shares

Earnings per share = $1.21

Therefore, Price-earnings ratio = Market price per share/Earnings per share

                  Price-earnings ratio = $70/1.21

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Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

Dr. Cash                                      $124,200

Dr. Accumulated Depreciation $118,800

Dr. Loss on Disposal                 $16,200

Cr. Equipment                            $259,200

Explanation:

Depreciation is the recording of asset expense due to its use. It is due to use of fair value of the asset after use. The expense value reduces the asset value over useful life period.

As per given data

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Asset is purchased on January 1, 2020 and on September 30, 2022 depreciation of only 2 years and 9 months has charged.

Depreciation per year =  (Cost of Asset - Salvage Value) / Useful life = ($259,200 - $43,200) / 5 = $43,200

Accumulated Depreciation as on September 30, 2022 = ($43,200 x 2) + $43,200 x 9/12 = $118,800

Book value of the asset is the net of accumulated depreciation of the asset. The accumulated depreciation on September 30, 2022, is as follow:

Net Book value of Asset = 259,200 - $118,800 = $140,400

5 0
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