Answer:
$2
Step-by-step explanation:
4 - 2 = 2
The first year, the amount is 40,000
the second year is 40000 + 4.2% of 40000, or 0.042 * 4000, so 40000+(0.042*4000)
common factoring that we get 40000(1 + 0.042), or just 40000(1.042)
in short, the starting amount is 40000, and to get the next term's value you'd use the "common ratio" of 1.042, namely the multiplier of 1.042.
for the third year it'll be 40000(1.042) + (0.042 *
40000(1.042) ), again, common factoring that
40000(1.042)(1 + 0.042) or 40000(1.042)(1.042) or 40000(1.042)²
therefore,
Answer:
See explanation below.
Step-by-step explanation:
The prime numbers are bold:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
a) We can see that as we go higher, twin primes seem less frequent but even considering that, there is an infinite number of twin primes. If you go high enough you will still eventually find a prime that is separated from the next prime number by just one composite number.
b) I think it's interesting the amount of time that has been devoted to prove this conjecture and the amount of mathematicians who have been involved in this. One of the most interesting facts was that in 2004 a purported proof (by R. F. Arenstorf) of the conjecture was published but a serious error was found on it so the conjecture remains open.