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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
12

Broker B received a buyer’s earnest money check for $5,000 and immediately cashed it. At closing, the broker handed the seller a

personal check drawn on the broker’s own bank account for $5300, representing the original earnest money plus six percent interest.The broker:____________.
Business
1 answer:
VikaD [51]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Should have deposited the money in a bank escrow or trust account and should have discussed the interest with the parties

Explanation:

In the case when the broker b received the money check i.e. earned for $5,000 and it is instantly cash. At the closing, the broker has drawn from this own account for $5300 that shows the original money plus siz percent rate of interst

So here the broker should deposit the money in the trust account and the same is to be discussed with the parties with respect to the interest

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True caffeine and other energy boosters can be used to effectively compensate for fatigue.
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Your​ company, which has a MARR of​ 12%, is considering the following two investment​ alternatives:
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

future worth:

project A  11,615.26

project B  12,139.18‬

It should choose project B as their future value is greater

IRR of project A: 13.54%

We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay

It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.

Explanation:

Project A

We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.

Revenues future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\  

C 15,000

time 8

rate 0.12

15000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{8} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $184,495.3970  

Expenses future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\

C 3,000

time 10

rate 0.12

3000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{10} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $52,646.2052  

Cost future value

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 40,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

40000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 124,233.93

Net future worth:

-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value

future worth 11,615.26

Project B

cost:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 60,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

60000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 186,350.89

expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)

revenues

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\  

C 24,000

time 7

rate 0.12

24000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{7} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $242,136.2815  

TOTAL

242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18‬

Internal rate of return of project A

we write the time and cash flow for each period.

Time Cash flow

0 -40,000

1 -3,000

2 -3,000

3 12,000

4 12,000

5 12,000

6 12,000

7 12,000

8 12,000

9 12,000

10 16,000

IRR 13.54%

Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)

and we got the IRR of the project

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20
Because 10 * 20
Equal the 200
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