I would argue that the scientific method wasn't very revolutionary during the scientific revolution seeing as it existed for hundreds of years. i think it was one of the ancient Greek or roman philosophers that first developed a series of thought that closely resembles the scientific method we know today. however another interpretation of the question is in the definition of revolution. the scientific revolution wasn't bloody like the British/french/american revolution. however the " dictionary definition" of revolution is completing an orbit. in that sense you could consider the scientific revolution a misnomer. in conclusion i think that the ways in which the scientific revolution differed from other revolts are numerous.
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Louis XVI was the king after Louis XV died
<span>There are many valid reasons for this, but a need for and preventing corruption/dictatorship seem the best reason for me. </span><span>It's a lot of power for one person, and in 8 years, a lot of good (but also a lot of damage) can be done. 8 years is enough for a good president to leave his mark on our country. Going beyond that point, especially with lifetime appointments like Article III judges, potentially lets a president perpetuate his power for a generation</span>
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "C. He does not know that his father's home was lost in the battle." In "The Battle of Blenheim," it is ironic that Old Kaspar repeatedly calls the battle "a famous victory" because <span>He does not know that his father's home was lost in the battle.</span>
It was a prolonged drought that affected those who had come to seek economic opportunities through farming in the Midwest.<span />
