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trasher [3.6K]
2 years ago
15

The location-specific advantages argument associated with John Dunning helps explain why firms prefer FDI to licensing or to exp

orting. True False
Business
1 answer:
harkovskaia [24]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

false

Explanation:

False. The location-specific advantages argument associated with John Dunning does help explain the direction of FDI. However, the location-specific advantages argument does not explain why firms prefer FDI to licensing or to exporting.

quizlet

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Suppose two successive levels of disposable personal income increases from $16 to $21 billion and the change in consumption spen
Montano1993 [528]

Answer: 0.4

Explanation: MPC, that is, marginal propensity to consume is used to quantify the consumption induced. As we know that, MPC is calculated as follows :-

MPC\:=\:\frac{Chane\:in\:consumer\:spending}{change\:in\:income}

MPC\:=\:\frac{2}{21-16}

MPC\:=\:\frac{2}{5}

                 = 0.4

5 0
3 years ago
​while setting up his new office, an attorney ordered thick, frieze carpets for the floor. however, the building inspector had h
Virty [35]
<span>The fact that according the </span><span>building inspector </span>the office must be wheelchair accessible as it is a public area illustrates how a company is influenced by the industry regulation component of its specific environment. The industry regulation sets a framework and standards for companies.
4 0
3 years ago
Division A offers its product to outside markets for $30. It incurs variable costs of $11 per unit and fixed costs of $75,000 pe
olga55 [171]

Answer:

a. See part a below for the analysis.

b. We have:

1. Division A total cost = $1,131,000

2. Division A total profit or benefit = $1,509,000

3. Division B total cost = $1,320,000

4. Division A total profit or benefit = $44,000

Explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file for the calculation of calculation of costs and benefits of options available to Divisions A and B.

a. What are the costs and benefits of the alternatives available to Division A and Division B with respect to the transfer of Division A's product? Assume that Division A can market all that it can produce.

Under this condition, each analysis is based on the condition that either Division A or Division B will pay for the transportation cost.

From part a the attached excel file, we have:

1. Division A will incur a total cost of of $559,000 and gets a profit or benefit of $761,000 if it sells to the outside market.

2. Division A will incur a total cost of of $647,000 and gets a profit or benefit of $673,000 if it sells to Division B.

3. Division B will incur a total cost of $1,408,000 if it buys from Division A.

4. Division B will incur a total cost of $1,364,000 if it buys alternate supplier. It thereby saves the transportation cost of $88,000 of buying from A as a benefit.

b. How would your answer change if Division A had idle capacity sufficient to cover all of Division B's needs?

Under this condition, it is assumed that Division A will pay for the transportation cost. Therefore, Division A will sell to both the outside market and Division B.

From part b of the attached excel file, we will have the following based on this condition:

1. Division A total cost = Total cost of selling to the outside market + Total cost of selling to Division B = $559,000 + $572,000 = $1,131,000

2. Division A profit or benefit cost = Total profit or benefits of selling to the outside market + Total profit or benefits of selling to Division B = $761,000 + $748,000 = $1,509,000

3.  Division B will incur a total cost of $1,320,000 by buying from Division A. It thereby saves $44,000 (i.e. $1,364,000 - $1,320,000 = $44,000) as a benefit for not buying from alternate supplier.

Download xlsx
3 0
2 years ago
When a third party bears a cost for a problem they did not cause, it is known as a __________.
alexandr1967 [171]
Negative externality
3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The bid price in a hostile takeover is generally above the price before the tak
just olya [345]

Answer:

a.

Explanation:

Based on all the answers that were provided the statement that is correct is that the bid price in a hostile takeover is generally above the price before the takeover attempt is announced, because otherwise there would be no incentive for the stockholders to sell to the hostile bidder and the takeover attempt would probably fail. Which pretty much explains itself, except for that a hostile takeover is when a person or another business tries to purchase a business by going directly to the shareholders themselves.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

5 0
3 years ago
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