Answer: In the West, Americans found a lot of land to expand, new species of plants and animals, and access to the Pacific Ocean. Because of their access to the largest body of water on the planet, international trade was possible (but wouldn't begin for another 75 or so years, assuming that this is in the mid-1800s).
1. Latin America's landforms include highlands, lowlands, mountains, and plains.
2. I would say villages near the plains,lowlands and maybe even mountains
Answer:It led to the Crusades and the spread of new ideas.
Explanation:
Answer: Is down below
Explanation:
The Dark Ages ●Was the period between 400 AD and 1400 AD a “Dark Age” for Europe? ●Was this a time of cultural decay and decline? The American Cyclopedia “The Dark Ages is a term applied in its widest sense to that period of intellectual depression in the history of Europe from the establishment of the barbarian supremacy in the fifth century (400 AD) to the revival of learning at about the beginning of the fifteenth (1400 AD), thus nearly corresponding in extent with the Middle Ages.” Textbook A 1.What type of document is this? A textbook excerpt. 2.When was it written? Was written in 1965. 3.How long does this textbook suggest the “Dark Ages” lasted? 624 years. 476 to 1100. 4.Why, according to this textbook, were the “early Middle Ages” a “Dark Age”? Europe suffered a decline in economy, literature, art, culture, education. When barbarians invaded there was disorder, chaos, travel was not safe. Government could not keep order. There was violence, theft, decline in manufacturing, commerce, education. Government lost control and it all fell to pieces. A poverty stricken time. 5.What is similar and different about this account and the American Cyclopaedia entry? Similar: see the dark ages as a negative time for Europe. Agree that it is an adequate name for this time period. Use the ‘barbarism’ term. Textbook says it was ‘semi’ whereas the cyclopedia said it was ‘supreme’ barbarism. Mention a decline in education. Differences: time period, one only mentions intellectual depression, the other talks about
Answer:
D) judges are able to strike down any laws they feel are immoral.
Explanation:
None of these are truly correct.
Federal Judges, especially in the Supreme Court, are nominated by the President, but needs to be approved by the two houses of congress. They are also in court for life, unless they break the constitution. These Judges, while they have their own beliefs, are supposed to be "3rd party", however, evidently the judges will rule based on what they believe is right.
A) is not exactly right, because administrations can nominate judges when there is a vacant space, either from the death of a judge or the judge stepping down.
B) is incorrect, because the judges are supposed to rule based on how the law affects the constitutional rights of the citizens of the country. They neither have the obligation to vote Democratic nor Republican.
C) is incorrect, because they are only able to nominate workers who can help them by hiring them. They do not nominate anybody.
D) is technically incorrect, but is your best answer. They do not strike down laws that "they feel are immoral", but that they strike down laws that break the constitution in any shape or form.
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