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3 years ago

5

3. The spinner below is spun 10 times. If the experimental probability of landing on a 3 is then what is the difference between

the experimental and the theoretical probabies?

1 answer:

Maurinko [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer Difference between the experimental and the theoretical probability is 2/5 . Step-by-step explanation: Spinner is spun 10 times, and experimental probability of landing on a 3 is 1/2, i.e. out of 10 times spinner lands 5 times into 3.

I hope it is helpful

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Let X be the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. The article "Methodo

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Answer:

a) $P(X\leq 4)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954+0.1954=0.6288$

$P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954=0.4335$

b) $P(4\leq X\leq 8)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042+0.0595+0.0298=0.5452$

c) $P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X$

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Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable that represent the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda=4)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda=4$ , $Var(X)=\lambda=2$ , $Sd(X)=2$

a. Compute both P(X≤4) and P(X<4).

$P(X\leq 4)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+ P(X=2)+P(X=3)+P(X=4)$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^0}{0!}=e^{-4}=0.0183$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^1}{1!}=0.0733$

$P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^2}{2!}=0.1465$

$P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^3}{3!}=0.1954$

$P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954$

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$P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.5311=0.7692$

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$P(4\leq X\leq 8)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+ P(X=6)+P(X=7)+P(X=8)$

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$P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042$

$P(X=7)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^7}{7!}=0.0595$

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$P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X$

$P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X$

d. What is the probability that the number of anomalies exceeds its mean value by no more than one standard deviation?

The mean is 4 and the deviation is 2, so we want this probability

$P(4\leq X \leq 6)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+P(X=6)$

$P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954$

$P(X=5)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^5}{5!}=0.1563$

$P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042$

$P(4\leq X \leq 6)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042=0.4559$

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