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2 years ago

Final question thank you everybody

Mathematics

1 answer:

zhuklara [117]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

a + $\frac{-2}{3}$ b

Step-by-step explanation:

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Helpppppppppppppppppp

UNO [17]

Answer:

<em>2 solutions</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression

2m/2m+3 - 2m/2m-3 = 1

Find the LCM of the expression at the left hand side:

2m(2m-3)-2m(2m+3)/(2m+3)(2m-3) = 1

open the bracket

4m²-6m-4m²-6m/(4m²-9) = 1

Cross multiply

4m²-6m-4m²-6m = 4m² - 9

-12m = 4m² - 9

4m² - 9+12m = 0

4m² +12m-9 = 0

<em>Since the resulting equation is a quadratic equation, it will have 2 solutions since the degree of the equation is 2</em>

8 0

2 years ago

What's 75/100 in simplest form

bagirrra123 [75]

Divide the numerator and denominator by their gcf (25)
75/25= 3
100/25= 4

Final answer: 3/4

7 0

3 years ago

7.4 Practice

pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281