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3 years ago

Please help thank you

Mathematics

2 answers:

Doss [256]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

x ≥ -4

Step-by-step explanation:

you subtract 10 on both sides to get x by itself. 6-10 = -4. since you already have x by itself you don’t have to do anymore

kkurt [141]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

The answer is x ≥ -4

Step-by-step explanation:

First, subtract 10 from both sides.

x + 10 ≥ 6

- 10 - 10

Which would make x ≥ -4.

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the amusement park charges a fee of $7.50 and $0.75 for every ride. the carnival charges a fee of $10.00 and$0.50 per ride. when

andrew11 [14]

A equation to represent this situation is:

$0.75x+7.50=0.50x+10.00$

Now we have to find x.

Step 1: Subtract 0.5x from both sides.

0.75x+7.5−0.5x=0.5x+10−0.5x0.25x+7.5=10

Step 2: Subtract 7.5 from both sides.

0.25x+7.5−7.5=10−7.50.25x=2.5

Step 3: Divide both sides by 0.25.

0.25x/0.25=2.5/0.25

Answer:

x=10
They will cost the same after 10 rides.

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4 years ago

Chapter 15 probability

denpristay [2]

What do you mean by that?

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3 years ago

Mary is preparing for her birthday party , and she needs to give sweets to all her 10 friends who are invited . To do this , she

hram777 [196]

Answer:

Since each bag has 9strawberries and lemon she gives out 10 strawberries and lemon so she remains with 9 and a quarter bags .

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember each bag contains 9 so she has to pick either one strawberry or a lemon so in the 9th bag she remains with 8 candies.

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3 years ago

DUE BY 11:59 PM!! HELP GREATLY APPRECIATED!!

aksik [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. There are only 4 numbers including 5 that follow the "five or more" requirment, and the probability of spinning it once is 4/8, or 1/2. (The total sections is 8) Then we multiply 1/2 and 1/2 together to get the "two times in a row" requirement done. (1/2)*(1/2)= 1/4 is the probability.

2. There are two values on the spinner that are a multiple of 3, 3 itself and 6. Again, the total amount of numbers/sections is 8, so the probability of spinning a multiple of three is 2/8 or 1/4. The probability of spinning an odd number is 4/8 or 1/2. (1/2)*(1/4)=1/8 is the probability.

3. The probability of spinning one odd number is 1/2, and so we multiply 1/2 by itself four times. (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)=1/16 is the probability.

4. There are 6 numbers greater than two on the number wheel not including two itself. So the probability of that is 6/8, or 3/4. Then we multiply 3/4 by itself 3 times as it asks. (3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)=81/256 is the probability.

Note that I am not really sure about the answer myself, but I hope that this can help in some way. Good luck! :)

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3 years ago

In the diagram below, ab and bc are tangent to o. what is the measure of adc

Andrej [43]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: 252 apex

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3 years ago

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