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slega [8]
3 years ago
9

Why multinational company are developed​

Business
2 answers:
blagie [28]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Multinationals provide an inflow of capital into the developing country.

Explanation:

This capital investment helps the economy develop and increase its productive capacity.

romanna [79]3 years ago
4 0
Multinational corporations (MNCs) have a global presence, even in developing countries. There are over 80,000 companies that drive the 21st-century economy. For example, Coca-Cola sells its product in nearly every country and has established over 900 bottling facilities worldwide. MNCs have propelled the GDP of their parent countries, most notably the United States, Japan, China and Western Europe, but how do their international operations affect developing countries?

It is difficult to say whether multinational corporations in developing countries are decidedly ‘good’ or ‘bad.’ One must consider many perspectives before making that judgment. However, researchers have identified a variety of positive and negative impacts applicable to most MNCs
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The following data are for the Akron Division of Consolidated Rubber, Inc.: Sales $ 800,000 Net operating income $ 50,000 Averag
ELEN [110]

Answer:

ROI 87.5%

Explanation:

Return on Investment = return /investment

Total return

50,000 perating income + 20,000 residual income = 70,000 income

The asset could been adquire on lease or through liabilities, this is not investment. The investmetn made is the one done by the shareholders.

Stock Holders equity = investment = 80,000

The shareholders invest this amount to generate

70,000 dollars of return

ROI  70,000/80,000 = 87.5%

7 0
3 years ago
Sarasota Company has a balance of $2,200 in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before adjustment. The estimated uncollectibles unde
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900

Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900

Explanation:

An account for allowance for doubtful debts is a contra account created, predicting that certain debtors will not be able to pay for the goods and services they purchased. This may be based on historical experiences. Doubtful debts aren’t officially uncollectible, it is simply an estimation made, but bad debts are, where you have officially written off a certain accounts receivable as uncollectible.

An allowance for doubtful debts is recorded in the balance sheet, directly under accounts receivables. Bad debts are recorded as an expense in the income statement. When there is an allowance for doubtful debts, the bad debts account is debited and the allowance for doubtful debts account is credited.

According to the question, the balance was $2,200 (Cr) in the allowance for doubtful debts account. The initial expected amount for allowance for doubtful debts was $5100 (Cr). This means that the difference was the amount that was declared as uncollectible and officially written off i.e. bad debts. Thus $2900 ($5100 -$2200) would have been confirmed as bad debts.

The entry to record the above transaction is:

Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900

Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900

5 0
3 years ago
Ben Gordon, Inc. manufactures 2 products, wheels and seats. The company has estimated its overhead in the assembling department
FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

$90,000

Explanation:

We could allocate assembly overhead on the basis of the parts used in the assembly process:

wheels ⇒ 300,000 x 2 parts = 600,000 parts

<u>seats ⇒ 600,000 x 3 parts = 1,800,000 parts</u>

total parts assembled     2,400,000 parts

overhead costs per part assembled = $360,000 / 2,400,000 parts = $0.15 per part

so the overhead allocated to wheels should be = 600,000 parts x $0.15 per part = $90,000

7 0
2 years ago
Seven years ago, you paid $324,800 to purchase a rental house. the maintenance expenses average $200 a month and property taxes
Mariulka [41]

The value that would be assigned to this house if you decide to use it as your office would be $ 425300

<h3>How to solve for the value of the house using opportunity cost</h3>

To get the value of the house, you have to get the opportunity cost of the house. This is the foregone alternative or benefits forgone due to another choice.

The formula is opportunity cost = Apprised Value - Selling costs

The apprised value = $439,500.

selling cost =  $14,200

$439,500 - $14,200

= $ 425300

Hence the value that should be assigned to it is $ 425300

Read more on opportunity cost here:

brainly.com/question/1549591

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose investor 1 and investor 2 each has $100 wealth to invest in the two risky assets and the risk-free asset, and suppose th
Lilit [14]

Answer:

Explanation: hey, do your best i think you can do good

5 0
2 years ago
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