The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "D.) There is likely an association between the categorical variables because the relative frequencies are both close to 0.50." Given that a relative frequencies of 0.48 and 0.52, there will be an association between the categorical variables.<span>
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I hope you mean 1/5 when you say 1 5. If that's what you mean, then both, Joshua and Melanie, are correct because, both of their equations are the same.
Joshua's - <span>8 ÷ 1/5 = 40 (Since we can divide a number by fraction, we use this rule: keep, change flip. When we use that Joshua's equation turns into 8 * 5/1 = 8*5 = 40, same as Melanie's.)</span>
Answer:
This is a binomial.
Step-by-step explanation:
Bi means two. Therefore, since this polynomial only has two integers it is a binomial.
Answer:
Mark me as brain list plz
Step-by-step explanation:
I could not give the answer directly so I will give it to you by pic