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zhenek [66]
3 years ago
13

Following are the published weights (in pounds) of all of the team members of Football Team A from a previous year.

Mathematics
1 answer:
son4ous [18]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

A.) Rearranged data (ascending order)

174, 175, 178, 184, 185, 185, 185, 185, 188, 190, 200, 203, 205, 206, 210, 211, 211, 212, 212, 215, 215, 220, 223, 228, 230, 232, 241, 241, 242, 245, 247, 250, 250, 259, 260, 260, 265, 265, 270, 272, 273, 275, 276, 278, 280, 280, 285, 285, 286, 290, 290, 295, 302

Size of data, n = 53

B.) median :

1/2*(n+1)th term

1/2 * (53 + 1)

1/2 *54th term = 27 th term

= 241

C.) first quartile (Q1) :

1/4*(n+1)th term

1/4 * (53 + 1)

1/4 *54th term = 13.5

(13 + 14)th term / 2

(205 + 206) /2

= 205.5

D.) third quartile (Q3) :

3/4*(n+1)th term

3/4 * (53 + 1)

3/4 *54th term = 40.5

(40 + 41)th term / 2

(272 + 273) /2

= 272.5

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The second choice is the answer
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Eight sided dice can be described as two square based pyramids stuck together at
kobusy [5.1K]
It costs $3.63 more for the gold die than the gold plated die.

The volume of each half of the die is given by the formula

V=1/3s³.

This means the total volume is V = 2(1/3s³) = 2(1/3(2³)) = 16/3 = 5.33 mm³.

For the solid gold die, we know that it weighs 0.02g per mm³:

5.33(0.02) = 0.1066g

Gold costs $40.38 per gram:
40.38(0.1066) = $4.30

For the plastic die, plastic weighs 0.01 g per mm³:
0.01(5.33) = 0.0533g

Plastic costs $10 per gram:
0.0533(10) = 0.533 ≈ $0.54.

We also need to find the surface area, as it will be painted.  Each face is an equilateral triangle; the area of a triangle is given by the formula

A = 1/2bh

We need to use the Pythagorean theorem to find the height.  The height will be one leg and 1/2 of the base will be the other; the slanted side will be the hypotenuse:

h² + (1/2(2))² = 2²
h² + 1² = 2²
h² + 1 = 4
h² = 3
h = √3

The area of the triangle would then be A = 1/2bh = 1/2(2)(√3) = √3.  There are 8 such faces on the die, so the total surface area would be 8√3 = 13.86mm².

Paint costs $0.01 per mm²:
13.86(0.01) = 0.1386 ≈ $0.14

Together the cost for the plastic is 0.14+0.53 = $0.67.

The difference between it and the cost for the gold die is 4.30 - 0.67 = $3.63.
5 0
3 years ago
Your friend asks if you would like to play a game of chance that uses a deck of cards and costs $1 to play. They say that if you
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

Expected value = 40/26 = 1.54 approximately

The player expects to win on average about $1.54 per game.

The positive expected value means it's a good idea to play the game.

============================================================

Further Explanation:

Let's label the three scenarios like so

  • scenario A: selecting a black card
  • scenario B: selecting a red card that is less than 5
  • scenario C: selecting anything that doesn't fit with the previous scenarios

The probability of scenario A happening is 1/2 because half the cards are black. Or you can notice that there are 26 black cards (13 spade + 13 club) out of 52 total, so 26/52 = 1/2. The net pay off for scenario A is 2-1 = 1 dollar because we have to account for the price to play the game.

-----------------

Now onto scenario B.

The cards that are less than five are: {A, 2, 3, 4}. I'm considering aces to be smaller than 2. There are 2 sets of these values to account for the two red suits (hearts and diamonds), meaning there are 4*2 = 8 such cards out of 52 total. Then note that 8/52 = 2/13. The probability of winning $10 is 2/13. Though the net pay off here is 10-1 = 9 dollars to account for the cost to play the game.

So far the fractions we found for scenarios A and B were: 1/2 and 2/13

Let's get each fraction to the same denominator

  • 1/2 = 13/26
  • 2/13 = 4/26

Then add them up

13/26 + 4/26 = 17/26

Next, subtract the value from 1

1 - (17/26) = 26/26 - 17/26 = 9/26

The fraction 9/26 represents the chances of getting anything other than scenario A or scenario B. The net pay off here is -1 to indicate you lose one dollar.

-----------------------------------

Here's a table to organize everything so far

\begin{array}{|c|c|c|}\cline{1-3}\text{Scenario} & \text{Probability} & \text{Net Payoff}\\ \cline{1-3}\text{A} & 1/2 & 1\\ \cline{1-3}\text{B} & 2/13 & 9\\ \cline{1-3}\text{C} & 9/26 & -1\\ \cline{1-3}\end{array}

What we do from here is multiply each probability with the corresponding net payoff. I'll write the results in the fourth column as shown below

\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|}\cline{1-4}\text{Scenario} & \text{Probability} & \text{Net Payoff} & \text{Probability * Payoff}\\ \cline{1-4}\text{A} & 1/2 & 1 & 1/2\\ \cline{1-4}\text{B} & 2/13 & 9 & 18/13\\ \cline{1-4}\text{C} & 9/26 & -1 & -9/26\\ \cline{1-4}\end{array}

Then we add up the results of that fourth column to compute the expected value.

(1/2) + (18/13) + (-9/26)

13/26 + 36/26 - 9/26

(13+36-9)/26

40/26

1.538 approximately

This value rounds to 1.54

The expected value for the player is 1.54 which means they expect to win, on average, about $1.54 per game.

Therefore, this game is tilted in favor of the player and it's a good decision to play the game.

If the expected value was negative, then the player would lose money on average and the game wouldn't be a good idea to play (though the card dealer would be happy).

Having an expected value of 0 would indicate a mathematically fair game, as no side gains money nor do they lose money on average.

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2 years ago
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ivolga24 [154]

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Slope-intercept form = y = mx + b

Slope goes where m is and y-intercept goes where b is.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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