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Charra [1.4K]
3 years ago
11

It is appropriate to use the fixed assets turnover ratio to appraise firms' effectiveness in managing their fixed assets if and

only all the firms being compared have the same proportion of fixed assets to total assets.a) trueb) false
Business
1 answer:
Kay [80]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

fixed assets turnover ratio = net sales / average fixed assets

This ration measures how effectively a company uses its fixed assets to generate sales. If a company's fixed assets turnover ratio is higher than the industry average, it means that  it is using its assets more efficiently to generate more sales or it is working at an over capacity, and it needs to add more fixed assets.

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Vinson Company purchased a patent for $180,000 at the beginning of Year8, and estimated that its expected useful life was 5 year
Alona [7]

Answer:

amortization expense is $36000

Explanation:

given data

purchased = $180000

time = 5 year

to find out

amount recorded as amortization expense

solution

we know here purchased  patent  for 180000 and here life is 5 years

so here

amortization expense will be purchased / time

amortization expense =  purchased / time

amortization expense = 180000 / 5

so amortization expense is $36000

6 0
3 years ago
Segregation of duties controls dictates that the collection and recording functions be kept separate from each other. However, t
nekit [7.7K]

Answer:

Option D All of the above statements are correct.

Explanation:

The solution of the issue is software integration and making flow of information on timely basis across the company. The recommended solutions given in the question are correct because:

  1. Establishing a lockbox arrangement is similar to having a single company bank account. This means that the company will have a confirmation from the bank that the payment is received by the bank from customers.
  2. The remittance advice sent with payment helps to solve the misunderstanding, assist in recording transaction to keep the system updated and provides resistance to fraudulent practice.
  3. The mailroom personnel who require mailing of trade receivable balance which the customers owe to company and trade payable balance which the company owes to suppliers. This avoids the company paying illegitimate amounts and receiving the amounts which the customers actually should pay to the company.

So all of the statements are correct.

5 0
3 years ago
Intermediaries are defined as Multiple Choice companies responsible for developing products to sell to businesses. organizations
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

organizations that are in the middle of a series of organizations that distribute goods from producers to consumers.

Explanation:

Intermediaries can be described as middlemen. They enhance the flow of goods and services between the producer and the consumer.

They are organizations that are in the middle of a series of organizations that distribute goods from producers to consumers.

Types of Intermediaries

  1. agents
  2. wholesalers
  3. distributors
  4. retailers.

Advantages of Intermediaries

  1. They increase efficiency of the distribution process
  2. they provide logistics support

Disadvantage of Intermediaries

they can increase the cost of a good

6 0
3 years ago
Using an ICD-10-CM code book, assign code(s) for the following diagnosis: Alcohol induced delirium tremens
kobusy [5.1K]

The ICD 10-CM code for Alcohol induced delirium tremens is F10. 921.

<h3>What is ICD 10-CM?</h3>

It should be noted that ICD 10-CM simply refers to the international classification of diseases.

In this case, the ICD 10-CM code for Alcohol induced delirium tremens is F10. 921.

Learn more about ICD 10-CM on:

brainly.com/question/25790048

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
E16-4. On January 1.2013, when its $30 par value common stock was selling for $80 per share, Plato Corp. issued $10,000,000 of 8
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

A. Dr Cash Account $10,800,000

Cr To Bonds Payable $10,000,000

Cr To Premium Payable $800,000

B.Dr Bonds Payable account $3,000,000

Dr Premium on bonds payable Debited $2,700,000

Cr To Common Stock $7,500

Cr Additional paid in capital $5,692,500

Explanation:

(a) Preparation of the journal entry to record the original issuance of the convertible debentures

Dr Cash Account $10,800,000

Cr To Bonds Payable $10,000,000

Cr To Premium Payable $800,000

($10,000,000*8/100=$800,000)

(Being issue of share on convertible debenture)

b.Preparation of the journal entry to record the exercise of the conversion option, using the book value method

Dr Bonds Payable account $3,000,000

Dr Premium on bonds payable Debited $2,700,000

Cr To Common Stock $7,500

Cr Additional paid in capital$5,692,500

($3,000,000+$2,700,000-$7,500)

(Being maintain the record of outstanding conversation of debenture)

Calculation for for BONDS CONVERTED

First step is to calculate the amortization for 2013

Amortization for 2013=$10,000,000/20

Amortization for 2013=$500,000

Second step is to calculate the amortization for 2014

Amortization for 2014=$10,000,000/20

Amortization for 2014=$500,000

Third step is to Calculate the premium on bonds payable

Premium on bonds payable=$10,000,000−($500,000+$500,000)

Premium on bonds payable=$9,000,000

Now let calculate the bonds converted

Bonds converted=$9,000,000×30/100

Bonds converted=$2,700,000

Calculation for COMMON STOCK

First step is to calculate the number of bonds

Number of bonds=$10,000,000/1000

Number of bonds=10,000

Second step is to calculate Price for the bond

Price for the bond=10,000×5

Price for the bond=50,000

Third step is to Calculate for Stock Split

Stock Split=50,000/2

Stock Split=25,000

Now let calculate the common stock

Common stock=25,000×30/100

Common stock=7,500

Calculation for BONDS PAYABLE

Bonds Payable=10,000,000×30/100

Bonds Payable=3,000,000

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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