1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
s2008m [1.1K]
3 years ago
9

How did Yugoslavia manage to be independent of Soviet Union

History
1 answer:
Xelga [282]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The Tito–Stalin split, or the Yugoslav–Soviet split, was the culmination of a conflict between the political leaderships of Yugoslavia and the Soviet Union, especially under Josip Broz Tito and Joseph Stalin, in the years following World War II. ... Stalin tried to pressure and moderate Yugoslavia via Bulgaria

You might be interested in
Why did general William T. Sherman have the nickname “Mad Dog”?
mixas84 [53]
Because he was a very mad man I’m guessing
5 0
3 years ago
Why is Bastille Day a symbol of French national pride? (5 points)
Ludmilka [50]
The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "It contradicts the idea that the French Revolution was essentially destructive." Bastille Day a symbol of French national pride because <span>It contradicts the idea that the French Revolution was essentially destructive.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Evaluate the effects of the teapot dome scandal on citizens’ views of the federal government
UkoKoshka [18]
The major effect of the teapot dome scandal was that many people in the United States lost their trust in the US government, since for the first time ever a Cabinet member was convicted of accepting bribes.
8 0
3 years ago
2. If the graph of a linear equation passes through two points, then the equation is plss po thanks
Andru [333]
Step 1: Find the y-intercept and plot the point. Step 2: From the y-intercept, use the slope to find the second point and plot it. Step 3: Draw a line to connect the two points.
4 0
2 years ago
How did the roosevelt corollary differ from the monroe doctrine?
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

The Monroe doctrine stated that the U.S. should use military force to prevent any form of intervention from an European power in the western hemisphere.

The Roosevelt corollary was different in that it allowed European powers to intervene as long as the intervention was considered justified, but not to invade.

This difference became clear during the Venezuelan crisis of 1902-1903, when Germany, Britain, and Italy imposed a naval blockade on Venezuela because the Venezuela president refused to pay for the damages suffered by European citizens during the recent civil war.

At first, Theodore Roosevelt allowed the blockade to continue because he believed that it was justified, but when Germany threatened to invade Venezuela, he intervened sending a fleet under Admiral George Dewey.

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Why have so many large new hotels being built in bangkok?
    10·1 answer
  • How are the Frank’s connected to the Catholic Church
    10·1 answer
  • This act limited the number of immigrants who could be admitted from any country to 2% of the number of people from that country
    7·1 answer
  • Which continent did the greatest number of immigrants come from in the decade from 1901 to 1910?Europe Africa South America Asia
    15·1 answer
  • What was one reason why many German immigrants came to Louisiana in the 1800s?
    9·1 answer
  • Who is the governor of Missouri
    13·1 answer
  • 15. How did the Oregon Trail get its name
    7·2 answers
  • How did the Spanish-American War affect US power in Asia?
    8·1 answer
  • Which of the following has declined significantly since 1650 in Europe?
    6·1 answer
  • Before you begin your speech, pick a revolutionary leader from Latin America or the Caribbean that has been discussed in this un
    8·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!