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Elena L [17]
3 years ago
11

CWN Company uses a job order costing system and last period incurred $70,000 of actual overhead and $100,000 of direct labor. CW

N estimates that its overhead next period will be $85,000. It also expects to incur $100,000 of direct labor cost. If CWN bases applied overhead on direct labor cost, its predetermined overhead rate for the next period should be:
Business
1 answer:
denis23 [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

85%

Explanation:

With regards to the above information, the predetermined over head is calculated as seen below.

Predetermined overhead = [(Estimated overhead / Expected labor cost) × 100]

Estimated overhead = $85,000

Expected labor cost = $100,000

Then,

Predetermined overhead = [($85,000 / $100,000) × 100]

Predetermined overhead = 0.85 × 100

Predetermined overhead = 85%

Therefore, the predetermined overhead rate for the next period should be 85%

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A company started a new product, and in the first month started 100,000100,000 units. The ending work in process inventory was 2
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

$240,000

Explanation:

Calculation for What is the value of the inventory transferred out, using the weighted-average inventory method

First step is to calculate the Equivalent material cost=

Equivalent material cost= 20,000×100%×$6

Equivalent material cost= 120,000

Second step is to calculate Equivalent conversion cost

Equivalent conversion cost=20,000×75%×8

Equivalent conversion cost=120,000

Now let calculate the value of the inventory transferred out, using the weighted-average inventory method

Inventory value transferred out= 120,000+120,000

Inventory value transferred out=$240,000

Therefore the value of the inventory transferred out, using the weighted-average inventory method is $240,000

4 0
3 years ago
When deciding how to deal with negative feelings, why should you evaluate the causes of your issue??
vampirchik [111]

<span>You might be able to cope with future issues more easily this the correct answer. : )</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Consider the following data: currency (held outside banks) = $354 billion, checkable deposits = $250 billion, traveler's checks
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

a). M1=$808 billion

b). M2=1,068 billion

Explanation:

M1 is the money supply that is the most liquid and is or can be easily converted into cash. The formula for calculating M1 is;

M1=C+D+T+S

where;

M1=money supply

C=currency held outside banks

D=checkable deposits

T=traveler's checks

S=small-denomination time deposits

In our case;

M1=unknown

C=$354 billion

D=$250 billion

T=$4 billion

S=$200 billion

replacing;

M1=(354+250+4+200)=$808 billion

M1=$808 billion

M2 includes elements of M1 and additional  money supply that are near liquid. The formula is;

M2=M1+savings deposit+mutual funds

where;

M1=$808 billion

savings=$100 billion

retail money market mutual funds=$160

replacing;

M2=(808+100+160)=1,068 billion

M2=1,068 billion

5 0
3 years ago
What is the npv of the following cash flows if the required rate of return is 0.14? year 0 1 2 3 4 cf -4,506 3,099 531 3,560 2,7
aksik [14]

-$177.62, CF0 = -28900, CO1 = 12,450 FO1 = 1, CO2 = 19,630 FO2 = 1, CO3 = 2,750 FO3 = 1I = 12, CPT NPV = -177.62

In practical terms, it is a method of calculating your return on investment, or ROI, for a project or expenditure. Net present value may be a tool of Capital budgeting to research the profitability of a project or investment.

it's calculated by taking the difference between the current value of money inflows and present value of money outflows over a period of your time. Put differently, it's the compound annual return an investor expects to earn (or actually earned) over the lifetime of an investment.

for instance, if a security offers a series of money flows with an NPV of $50,000 and an investor pays exactly $50,000 for it, then the investor's NPV is $0. Net present value uses discounted cash flows within the analysis, which makes the web present value more precise than of any of the capital budgeting methods because it considers both the danger and time variables.

A higher NPV doesn't necessarily mean a far better investment. If there are two investments or projects up for decision, and one project is larger in scale, the NPV are higher for that project as NPV is reported in dollars and a bigger outlay will lead to a bigger number. Net present value (NPV) is that the difference between this value of money inflows and also the present value of money outflows over a period of your time.

learn more about NPV: brainly.com/question/18848923    

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
Two main reasons a company will market its products are to _____. (Select all that apply)
Leni [432]

Answer:

3. consumers know what is available

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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