Answer:
$315,250
Explanation:
total discount on bonds payable = $320,000 - $315,000 = $5,000
amortization of bond discount per coupon payment = $5,000 / 20 = $250
bonds carrying value after the first coupon payment is made = $315,000 + $250 = $315,250
Dr Interest expense 8,250
Cr Cash 8,000
Cr Discount on bonds payable 250
Answer: Use of several factors instead of a single market index to explain the risk-return relationship
Explanation:
Arbitrage pricing theory (APT) is when the return on an asset is forecasted when the linear relationship which exist between the expected return of the asset and the macroeconomic variables are being considered.
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) helps in showing the relationship that take place between systematic risk and an asset expected return.
The feature of the general version of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) that offers the greatest potential advantage over the simple CAPM is the use of several factors instead of a single market index to explain the risk-return relationship as it's more robust when compared to the CAPM.
1. Because only 25% of the foreign investment went from MDCs to LDCs.
2. Money is not invested evenly among LDCs (most money went to China).
Weighted average cost of capital = [Cost of equity * Proportion of equity] +[Cost of preferred stock * Proportion of preferred stock] +[Cost of debt *(1-tax rate)*proportion of debt]
Cost of equity =0.14
Proportion of equity = 75/150 = 3/6
Cost of preferred stock = 0.08
Proportion of preferred stock = 25/150 = 1/6
Cost of debt = 0.06
Tax rate = 0.34
Proportion of debt = 50/150 = 2/6
Weighted average cost of capital =[0.14*3/6]+[0.08*1/6]+[0.06 (1-0.34)*2/6]
Weighted average cost of capital = 0.07+0.013+0.0128 = 0.0958 = 9.58%
