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3 years ago

I roll a standard six-sided die 6 times in a row. What is the probability that the numbers

Mathematics

2 answers:

ioda3 years ago

7 0

I think 50% or 1/2 ( it’s the same just one is in fraction and other in percentage)

kaheart [24]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

1 / 64

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of a multi-stage events that are independent is the product of all of them. Probability is basically the desirable outcomes over the total outcomes. When rolling a die, there are 6 different numbers you can roll, meaning six different outcomes. There are 3 outcomes where you can roll an even number: 2, 4, and 6. And it's the same with odd numbers: 1, 3, and 5. So the probability of rolling an even number is 3 / 6 or 1 / 2 and the probability of an odd number is the same, 1 / 2. Now, since the probabilities are the same at each stage, we can multiply 1 / 2 to itself 6 times or (1/2)^6 which evaluates to 1 / 64.

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-4x + 8 > 12 inequality solution ?

BARSIC [14]

Answer:

x<-1

Step-by-step explanation:

-4x+8>12

-4x>12-8

-4x>4

x>4/-4

x>-1

x<-1

6 0

2 years ago

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

3 0

2 years ago

A middle-school art teacher, Ms. Velez, and her students are turning the school’s gymnasium into a student art museum for the da

boyakko [2]

Answer:19 to the 5th power

Step-by-step explanation:

U got to count all the zeros and that will be the number u put on top plus 19

3 0

2 years ago

Please help!!!!!!!!!!

Sergeu [11.5K]

1, 3, and 5 would be my best guesses but I’m not 100 percent sure

7 0

2 years ago

I need help please ill give brainlist

Natalka [10]

Answer:

Banana

Step-by-step explanation:

So, First you multiply the Banana, next you take that Banana and eat it. After, find out the answer! Boom, done!

6 0

2 years ago