The American Indians technically owned that land before the French because they were the only humans in that area.
Answer:
Yes, because making agreements with foreign nations is a concurrent power
Explanation:
The state of Texas wished to make an agreement with the foreign government of Mexico.
Is this allowed by the Constitution?
The answer:
Yes, because making agreements with foreign nations is a concurrent power.
A state can make an agreement with a foreign government by special permission from Congress or the Constitution as it is a concurrent power.
Answer:
The correct answer is option a "Texas became and independent province of Spain".
Explanation:
It is false to affirm that Texas became and independent province of Spain between 1718 and 1722, since it happened more than 100 years later. On 1836, Texas became its own country during a short period of time and it was called the Republic of Texas. However, by 1845 Texas agreed to join the United States, with only one vote against this decision.
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation:
<em>According to G00GLE, and I quote*: " The Minnesota Supreme Court's canon of judicial conduct prohibiting candidates for judicial election from announcing their views on disputed legal and political issues violates the First Amendment. "</em>
<em></em>
<em></em>
<em></em>
<em></em>
<em></em>
<em></em>
<em>* </em><em>thanks to Cornell Law School for the awesome answer, all credit due there. </em>
The second alternative is correct (B).
During the Great Depression the film industry became the great highlight of the arts.
The 1930s and 1940s were considered the Golden Age of Cinema. The technologies developed at the time made the films more realistic and cinema was replacing the Theater in the position of main source of entertainment.
G<u>oing to the movies became a social event, so people, tired of the effects of the Great Depression, used the film sections as a source of leisure and socialization, which was good for the minds of people in financial depression.</u>
