I think the Indian trade but not so sure
Well you would have to go to all the courts for them to approve it then the government will have to agree to it too so its not easy to just come up with a united states official law.
Answer:
Traders were not bound to trade with the Byzantine Empire.
Explanation:
During the rule of Justinian, the Empire main goal was to restore the glory of the Roman Empire. Byzantine Empire started taking territories in the west, which once were under the Roman Empire. Justinian first sent troops to North Africa to reclaim Roman lands there. Trade merchants from around the world travelled to the empire's capital Constantinople. Goods from the Middle East, Africa, India, and China transported.
With the rise of the Muslim Empire, northern Africa came under their control. In 711, the Umayyad caliphate invaded Europe, and by 720 Spain and Portugal were under Muslim rule. Traders focused on selling their trade in these regions as the Byzantine Empire began to crumble as its neighbouring empires began to grow stronger.
<span>The two immediate causes of the war were Greece broke into two rival camps and the second was that Athenians dominated the world at the time. A long term cause could be that the Greeks society declined. People say that the Greeks lost the Peloponnesian war because Sparta completely dominated.</span>
When World War I broke out in 1914, all Dominions of the British Empire, including Canada, were called upon by Great Britain to fight on her behalf. So, they kinda had to.
And start.ariot is right. Canada basicly had no choice. It was different in WWII, in which Canadian Parliament debated whether or not to go to war. Canada did, but the fact that she could make a choice was a major step in the growth of Canadian autonomy.
