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MrRissso [65]
3 years ago
8

If you understand spanish really well (and Mexican) but you cant really speak it as well do you still count as billungal?

English
2 answers:
Mice21 [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

As long as you can have a full conversation with someone in that language, then yes.

Explanation:

klemol [59]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

No im pretty sure you have to speak it fluently also to be consider bilingual

Explanation:

hope this helps

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3 years ago
I want an explanation (nothing - something - everything - something)
Scrat [10]

Indefinite pronouns are used to refer to nonspecific people, things or places. In this way, the speaker uses -body or -one to refer to people, and    -thing to indicate objects. As a general rule, these pronouns are consider to be in the singular form so the verb has to agree with it.  

It is important to highlight that “Nothing” is used in negative sentences (example: Nobody worked yesterday.)

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5 0
3 years ago
What news does parries convey to danforth about abigail? the crucible act 4
Viefleur [7K]
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3 years ago
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galben [10]

Answer:

<h2>D</h2>

Explanation:

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3 0
2 years ago
HELP ME WITH TOPICS PLEASE &lt;3
postnew [5]

Answer:

So I really don't know if this would work but try writing about something that makes you angry

Explanation:

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4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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