Although your question is ambiguous as could be, I'll do my best to answer. The Nazi's had indeed invaded countries by Jan 1940, beginning with the Austrian "Anschluss" in 1938, they invaded Austria. Then following the Munich Agreement in 1938 invaded Czechoslovakia. It was when the Nazis invaded Poland on 1st Sept 1939, that Britain and France declared War. What followed was conned a "Phoney War" as neither the Allies nor Germany invaded any country. This came to an end in April 1940 when Germany invaded Netherlands, Belgium and subsequently France. So yes you are right to a degree that WW2 had not fully begun by Jan 1940.
Hope I helped :)
The british colony of the source cotton, tea, and silk is India.
To quote the witch in Snow White "Who's the fittest of them all?" Who but those who think they are powerful enough to occupy colonies who supply raw materials to be shaped into manufactured articles, to be sold back to the colonies?
That is the definition of imperialism. It is the colonization by force of those unable to prevent the colonization. Imperialism is the creation of an empire by colonizing people that can't prevent their own subjugation.
Does that not sound like survival of the fittest to you?
He disagreed with with the communist viewpoint so he tried to find the communist to stop the spread of communism.
I would say 10,000 years ago. I did heard and read it in a book. I'm not too sure who the first man was...
