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Olenka [21]
3 years ago
13

A loss has a Debit balance and is shown on the balance sheet. A gain has a Credit balance and is shown on the balance sheet. B.

A loss has a Debit balance and is shown on the Income Statement. A gain has a Credit balance and is shown on the Income Statement. C. A loss has a Debit balance and is shown on the Income Statement. A gain has a Credit balance and is shown on the Balance Sheet. D. A loss has a Credit balance and is shown on the Income Statement. A gain has a Debit balance and is shown on the Income Statement.
Business
1 answer:
spin [16.1K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A gain has a Credit balance and is shown on the Income Statement. C. A loss has a Debit balance and is shown on the Income Statement.

Explanation:

As we know that the revenues and gains contains the normal credit balance while on the other hand the expenses and losses contains the normal debit balance and both are reported on the income statement

The gain would be reported on the credit side of the income statement and the loss would be reported on the debit side of the income statement

So the same is relevant too

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The formula for finding the net present value of a cash outflow now, a positive cash flow in 1 year, a positive cash flow in 2 y
melamori03 [73]

The formula for finding the net present value is -C0 + [C1 / (1 + r)] + [C1 / (1 + r)²] + [C1 / (1 + r)³].

<h3>What is the net present value?</h3>

The net present value is a capital budgeting method. Net present value is the present value of after-tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

Only projects with a positive net present value should be accepted. A project with a negative net present value should not be chosen because it isn't profitable. When choosing between positive  net present value projects, choose the project with the highest  net present value first because it is the most profitable.

An advantage of the net present value method of capital budgeting is that it considers the times value of money. A disadvantage of net present value is that it is difficult to estimate the accurate discount rate.

To learn more about net present value, please check: brainly.com/question/25748668

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7 0
1 year ago
Utility gained with each individual unit of a good that you purchase is called ______________. (select the best answer.) select
xxMikexx [17]
<span>Utility gained with each individual unit of a good that you purchase is called </span>a. marginal utility

This is of high importance because marginal utilities are used to determine how many items a consumer is willing to buy.
6 0
3 years ago
Portman Industries just paid a dividend of $1.68 per share. The company expects the coming year to be very profitable, and its d
alisha [4.7K]

Answer:

What is the expected dividend yield for Portman's stock today?

d. 6.40%

Suppose Portman is considering issuing 62,500 new shares at a price of $26.78 per share. If the new shares are sold to outside investors, by how much will Judy's investment in Portman Industries be diluted on a per-share basis?

a. $0.52 per share

Thus, Judy's investment will be diluted, and Judy will experience a total loss of $0.52 x 7,500 = $3,900

Explanation:

cost of equity = Re = risk free rate of return + (Beta × market premium) = 5% + (0.90 x 6%) = 10.4%

dividend in one year = $1.68 x 120% = $2.016

intrinsic stock price = $2.016 / (10.4% - 4%) = $31.50

expected dividend yield = dividend / stock price = $2.016 / $31.50 = 6.4%

Judy's loss per share = ($31.50 - $26.78) x (62,500 / 562,500) = $0.5244

7 0
3 years ago
Harrods PLC has a market value of £136 million and 4 million shares outstanding. Selfridge Department Store has a market value o
Lisa [10]

Answer:

the stock price after the acquisition is $37.30

Explanation:

The computation of the stock price after the acquisition is given below:

= Worth of combined synergy ÷ (outstanding shares = harrods shares)

= £194 million ÷ (4 million + 1.2 million)

= £194 million ÷ 5.2 million shares

= $37.30 per share

hence, the stock price after the acquisition is $37.30

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct answer could come

5 0
3 years ago
The issuance of notes payable for borrowing is classified in the statement of cash flows as a(n): Multiple Choice Operating acti
Harman [31]

The transaction of the issuance of notes payable for borrowing will be classified in cash flows statement as a Financing activities.

Under the statement of Cash-flow, the financing activities section records all transactions that involves long-term liabilities, owner's equity etc.

  • Hence, the transaction of the issuance of notes payable for borrowing will be classified in cash flows statement as a Financing activities.

Therefore, the Option C is correct.

Read more about Cash-flow

<em>brainly.com/question/735261</em>

8 0
2 years ago
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