Answer:
Explanation:
Annual worth: this will be the annuity payment equivalent to all the cashflow of the investment. Thus the PMT of the net present value
Cash Investment at F0: <em>230,000/2 = 115,000</em>
present value of 7,500 salvage value:
Maturity 7,500.00
time 7 years
MARR: 10% = 0.1
PV <em> 3,848.69 </em>
<u>Then, we need to calculate the present value of the loan discounted at 10%</u>
half the investment is finance: 230,000 / 2 = <em>115,000</em>
Then, this capitalize 2 year at 8% before the first payment:
Principal 115,000.00
time 2 year
MARR: 10% = 0.08000
Amount 134,136.00
Now we need to discount this loan at 10% which is our rate of return:
Maturity 134,136.00
time 2.00
MARR: 10% = 0.1
PV <em>110,856.20 </em>
Finally: we add this values to get the resent worth:
<em>115,000 + 110,856.20 - 3,848.69 = </em><em>222,007.51</em>
<em />
Last step, we calculate the PMT of the present worth:
PV 222,007.51
time 7 years
MARR: 10% = 0.1
C $ 45,601.564
<em />
Answer:
Remain the same; remain the same.
Explanation:
Unemployment rate refers to the percentage of the total labor force in an economy, who are unemployed but seeking to be gainfully employed. The unemployment rate is divided into various types, these include;
I. Natural Rate of Unemployment (NU).
II. Frictional unemployment rate (FU).
III. Structural unemployment rate (SU).
IV. Actual unemployment rate (AU).
V. Cyclical unemployment rate (CU).
There are different measures used in the measurement of the unemployment rate in a country's economy and these includes;
A. U-1: this is the percentage of people that are unemployed for at least 15 weeks or more.
B. U-2: this is the percentage of the people who have lost their job or the people that finished a temporary job.
C. U-3: this is the percentage of the population that is unemployed but actively seeking employment.
All things being equal (ceteris paribus), the unemployment rate would remain the same and the labor force participation rate remain the same because Matilda has decided to cruise around the country on her motorcycle for a month before she starts looking for work.
Answer: $3,940
Explanation:
Purchase from Diamond
The company received a discount of 2% because they paid within 10 days as per the terms of the sale.
Cost of inventory from Diamond:
= (Cost of goods - Returns) * (1 - 2%)
= (4,100 - 1,100) * 98%
= $2,940
Purchase from Club
Discount period expired so the full $1,000 is paid.
Total inventory cost:
= 2,940 + 1,000
= $3,940
Answer:
less than $1 million.
Explanation:
According to my research, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this next change is likely to save less than $1 million. We can predict this since the first change saved $1 million but was a reduction of 3%, the second change is a reduction of 2% so it will most likely not reach 1$ million in savings
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
The opportunity cost of choosing to live in a rural area instead of an urban area is the accessibility to greater choices which is in terms of entertainment, food, and shopping. Thus, statement B is correct.
<h3>What do you mean by opportunity cost?</h3>
In microeconomic theory, the opportunity cost of a particular activity alternative is the loss of price or advantage that could be incurred through engaging in that activity, relative to engaging in an alternative activity providing a better return in value or advantage.
The opportunity cost of choosing to live in a rural area instead of an urban area is the accessibility to greater choices in terms of entertainment, food, and shopping. Thus, statement B is correct.
Learn more about Opportunity cost here:
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