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timurjin [86]
2 years ago
6

Surface Area of 40,40,40

Mathematics
1 answer:
Bogdan [553]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

64000

Step-by-step explanation:

40×40×40

Multiply 40 and 40 to get 1600.

1600×40

Multiply 1600 and 40 to get 64000.

64000

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A medical company tested a new drug on 100 people for possible side
zzz [600]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The given information is expressed as

Side effect no side effect total

Adult 7 43 50

Children 22 28 50

Total 29 71 100

Probability is expressed as

Number of favorable outcomes/number of total outcomes

For the probability that an adult has side effects,

Total number of outcomes = 50

Number of favorable outcomes = 7

Probability that an adult has side effects = 7/50 = 0.14

For the probability that a child has side effects,

Total number of outcomes = 50

Number of favorable outcomes = 22

Probability that an adult has side effects = 22/50 = 0.44

Therefore, it is more likely that a child has side effects compared to an adult

5 0
3 years ago
How does the order of operations relate to solving multi-step equations? Use examples of solving an equation, and then evaluatin
givi [52]
The order of operations helps keep answers for multi-step equations similar. If the proper order of operations are not followed, then answers may vary. To show an example:

4 / 2 - 1

The proper order of operations would be:

Divide first, before subtracting
4 / 2 - 1
2 - 1
1

But if subtracting was done before dividing:

4 / 2 - 1
4 / 1
4

So not following the proper order would yield different and erroneous answers.
6 0
3 years ago
Marc spent 1 4 of his monthly budget on food and 3 5 of his monthly budget on gasoline. The total amount he spent on food and ga
bearhunter [10]
Food = 1/4
gasoline = 3/5 
Total = 1/4 + 3/5 = 17/20

17/20 = 272
1/20 = 272 ÷ 17 = 16
20/20 = 16 x 20 = $320
4 0
3 years ago
A number is greater than 8. The same number is less than 10. The inequalities x > 8 and x < 10 represent the situation
wlad13 [49]

Answer:

Option 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Let any two real number a and b (no matter +ve, -ve or 0). a ≥ b

The average of them will always lie in between them or be equal(if 0).

Let's prove : According to the statement,

a ≥ (a + b)/2 ≥ b

2a ≥ a + b ≥ 2b

2a ≥ a + b and a + b ≥ 2b

a ≥ b and a ≥ b, as we assumed.

Moreover, as the average exists in between a and b, we have the average (a + b)/2. Similarly, there exists one more average of (a + b)/2 and a or b, which definitely lie between a and b as (a + b)/2 lies there and smaller than a and b.

In the same order, we can have many average and the process would stop. This leads to infinite number between a and b.

Notice that we talked about all the numbers moreover there are many irrational(non-terminating like 9.898989.... etc numbers as well.

Option (4), infinite solutions.

Note: we solved for all the number (not specifically odd, even, natural, whole, integer, etc).

7 0
3 years ago
I need helpp :D cuz if i dont get all my missing bellringers in i wont get to go to a concerttttt
ollegr [7]

Answer:

b and e

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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