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Aloiza [94]
2 years ago
11

Assume that the U.S. Congress has passed a federal statute that is in conflict with a Wisconsin state constitutional provision.

The state of Wisconsin argues that the constitutional provision should prevail over the statute because constitutions are a higher, more authoritative kind of law than statutes. Is this argument correct
Law
1 answer:
vredina [299]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: It is not.

Explanation:

The U.S. Constitution has a clause known as the Supremacy Clause that places the Constitution of the United States as well as all Federal law that are not in violation of the Constitution above State laws and Constitutions.

This is why Federal Voting rights were able to prevail over the State Constitutions in the South after the Civil War.  

For this reason, the Federal Statute enacted by Congress will take precedence over the Wisconsin State Constitutional Provision.

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The  conflict in the United States then was that Congress do not have the power to tax and they do not also have the power to monitor foreign and interstate commerce, etc.

<h3>What was this issue about?</h3>

The Articles of Confederation  was said to have made a kind of loose confederation where there was a sovereign states and then a kind of weak central government.

Conclusively, Here, almost all power were said to be with  the state governments. and thus issue were said to arise as Congress do not have the power to tax and they do not also have the power to monitor foreign and interstate commerce, etc.

Learn more about conflict  from

brainly.com/question/24769299

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