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erastovalidia [21]
4 years ago
7

What is the sign of -201 + 189

Mathematics
1 answer:
ludmilkaskok [199]4 years ago
3 0

-12 is the answer. It is - because the negative number is larger.

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Y= 2x +2
Airida [17]

Answer:

The system has one solution, at a single point of intersection.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm going to assume that g and y are the same thing here, on a normal xy-coordinate plane. If there is actually a third dimension, 'g', then I am probably wrong, and I apologize.

For a system of 2 linear equations, a 'solution' is a point of intersection for the two lines.

If the two lines are parallel, they will have no intersection. These two equations are in the form y = mx + b, where m is the slope. <u>If their slopes are the same, then the lines are parallel.</u> The first equation has a slope of 2. The second equation has a slope of 6. 2 ≠ 6, obviously. They are are <u>not </u>parallel, so there is <u>at least one</u> solution (intersection)

If two equations are 'equivalent', then they represent the same exact line and you cannot find a unique solution to the system because there is no single point where they intersect. They intersect at <u>all </u>points, so there are an infinite number of solutions. Two equations in the same format (like point-slope) will be equivalent if you see that one is just a multiple of the other. That is not the case here. They are not equivalent, so there are not an infinite number of solutions.

For the intersection of two lines in a plane, that intersection is no point, 1 point, or infinite points.

We have ruled out no point and we have ruled out infinite points.

There must be a solution of one point where the two lines intersect.

That would be consistent with answers B and E as shown in your Brainly question.

4 0
3 years ago
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GOOD QUESTION BELOW PLS LOOK AT PHOTO
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

lol

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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If George is 33 1/3% richer than Pete, than Pete is what percent poorer than George?
OleMash [197]

Answer:

25%

Step-by-step explanation:

George is 33\frac{1}{3}% (\frac{100}{3}%) richer than Pete. Let Pete's percentage of wealth be 100%.

Thus George percentage of wealth = 100% + \frac{100}{3}%

                                                           = \frac{400}{3}%

                                                           = 133\frac{1}{3}%

Pete's percent poorer than George can be determined by;

                                                           = (\frac{100}{3}) ÷ (\frac{400}{3} ) × 100

                                                           = (\frac{100}{3}) × \frac{3}{400} ×100

                                                           = 0.25 × 100

                                                           = 25%

Pete is 25% poorer than George.

3 0
3 years ago
WILL GIVE Brainliest!!!!!!!!!!!<br> what is:<br> 8/3 + 2<br> as a fraction
mixer [17]

Answer:

14/3 or 4 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps :)

Brainliest pls? Have a good day/night

8 0
4 years ago
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Marbleslides: Lines
Arada [10]

Answer:

ok

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
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