Answer:
1808.
Explanation:
<em>"There is a sense in which the Clause is no longer constitutionally relevant since it expired in 1808. At the time the Constitution was adopted, there was no guarantee whether or when the federal Congress would act to prohibit the importation of slaves. So there is a legitimate inquiry about what took place in the political realm over the 20-year period between the adoption of the Constitution and 1808. During that time period, popular support for the abolition of the slave trade and slavery itself increased both in the United States and in other countries. There was more support for restricting the slave trade initially than slavery itself in this time period. In the 1790s, Congress passed statutes regulating the trade in slaves by U.S. ships on the high seas. The United Kingdom and other countries also passed legislation restricting the slave trade, increasing international pressure on the United States to likewise curb the practice."</em>
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Source: constitutioncenter.org
The Indian Reorganization Act of 1934 accomplished that the Indians were granted back their assets which had been historically removed from them. These assets included land and minerals, but the larger idea behind it was for Native Americans to be re-assimilated into society and for economic self-sufficiency to be more readily available for the community, as well as a certain amount of sovereignty for the different tribes.
Answer:
It's very just. Slavery is forbidden. The evidence is the constution section 6
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The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "C. Voters must be property owners." In the US before 1800, the characteristic that was NOT a typical requirement for voters is that voters must be property owners.
i think its
