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Verizon [17]
2 years ago
14

Sorry forgot to post the problem here it is

Mathematics
1 answer:
vovikov84 [41]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

55

Step-by-step explanation:

m angle A and m angle C are equal sine two of those sides are equal. You would do 3x + 40 = x +50

You subtract x, leaving it to be 2x + 40 = 50

Subtract the 40, leaving it be 2x = 10

Divide both sides by 2, which leaves x = 5

and then you would do 3(5) + 40, which is 55

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A number cube has the numbers
kogti [31]

Answer:

that is based on luck u could get 5 everytime or none, depends on what roll

7 0
3 years ago
Please Help!
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use triangle inequality, let AC = x:

x+4 > 5

x+5 > 4

9 > x

Simplifying:

x>1

x>-1

9>x

Thus: 9>x>1

So the Largest whole number is 8

3 0
3 years ago
Mrs. Smith's class is working on a variety of science experiments. Each
SVETLANKA909090 [29]

Answer:

66

Step-by-step explanation:

If there are  <em>n</em>  students, then the number of pairs is \frac{n(n-1)}{2}.

With 12 students, \frac{12(12-1)}{2} = \frac{132}{2}=66 pairs can be formed.

The reason the formula works is this:  Each of the 12 students can be paired with 11 other students (no student is paired with him/her self).  But counting 12 x 11 = 132  counts each pair <u>twice</u>.  Example: student A can be paired with student B,..., student B can be paired with student A.  The pair was counted two times.

See the attached image that shows pairings of 5 students.  There are

5(5 - 1)/2 = 5(4)/2 = 10 pairs.

8 0
2 years ago
PLEASE ANSWER ASAP FOR BRAINLEST!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Tom [10]

Answer:

You have to divide the total sales by 8 percent. 32,000/ 0.8 =40,000

So your answer is 40,000.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How does adding the log together automatically mean that it is a factorial?
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer: The answer is given below.

Step-by-step explanation:  We are given an equality involving logarithm and we are to show the implication of L.H.S. to R.H.S.

We will be using the following two properties of logarithm:

(i)~\log_ba=\dfrac{1}{\log_ab},\\\\\\(ii)~log_ab+\log_ac=\log_a(bc).

The proof is as follows:

L.H.S.\\\\\\=\dfrac{1}{\log_2N}+\dfrac{1}{\log_3N}+\dfrac{1}{\log_4N}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{\log_{100}N}\\\\\\=\log_N2+\logN3+\log_N4+\cdots+\log_N100\\\\=\log_N\{2.3.4...100\}\\\\=\log_N\{1.2.3.4...100\}\\\\=\log_N{100!}\\\\=\dfrac{1}{\log_{100!}N}\\\\=R.H.S.

Hence proved.

6 0
3 years ago
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