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Firdavs [7]
2 years ago
14

A business buys on terms of 2/10, net 30. It does not take discounts, and it typically pays 45 days after the invoice date. What

is the nominal annual percentage cost of its non-free trade credit, based on a 365-day year?
Business
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

21.28%

Explanation:

Nominal annual percentage = Discount/(100-discount) * 365/(Days paid after purchase - Days of discount period)

Nominal annual percentage = 2/(100-2) *365/(45-10)

Nominal annual percentage = 2/98 * 365/35

Nominal annual percentage = 0.02041 * 10.4286

Nominal annual percentage = 0.212847726

Nominal annual percentage = 21.28%

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The focus of Performance Based Logistics (PBL) is to leverage best practices of both Government and Industry.
natita [175]

The focus of Performance Based Logistics (PBL) is to leverage best practices of both Government and Industry.--- True

Explanation:

PBL is synonymous with performance-based life cycle product support, where outcomes are acquired through performance-based arrangements that deliver Warfighter requirements and incentivize product support providers to reduce costs through innovation. These Product Support Arrangements (PSA) are contracts with industry or intragovernmental agreements.

What is the focus of performance based logistics?

Performance-Based Logistics (PBL) is the purchase of support as an integrated, affordable, performance package designed to optimize system readiness and meet performance goals for a weapon system through long-term support arrangements with clear lines of authority and responsibility.

How long are PBL contracts?

Effective PBL contracts are typically multi-year contracts (i.e., 3 to 5 years with additional option or award term years), with high confidence level for exercising options/award term years.

Learn more about performance based logistics:

brainly.com/question/22567488

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8 0
2 years ago
Testing the probability of a relationship between variables occurring by chance alone if there really was no difference in the p
12345 [234]

Answer:

b.significance testing is answer.

Explanation:

I hope it's helpful!

7 0
3 years ago
If an organizational capability or resource is valuable and unique, but it is easy to imitate: A. It cannot be a source of compe
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

<h2>In this case,the answer would be option D. or It can be a source of competitive advantage for a period of time.</h2>

Explanation:

  • In Production Economics,any organizational input in the production process can provide competitive advantage to any firm or company for a sustainable period of time only if it provides commercial or economic value to the firm or company,it is unique and it cannot be completely imitable or substituted through other equivalent resource/s by other market competitors.
  • Therefore,if any organization resource or input is easily imitated then it cannot ensure long term or sustainable competitive advantage for any firm or company in the market.
  • However,it can provide some temporary market advantage or competitive edge to any particular firm or company until the time it is fully imitated and implemented by its competitors or rivals.
3 0
3 years ago
The process of making decisions about goals and activities that an organization will pursue in the future is referred to as.
Anarel [89]

The process whereby a organization makes decisions about what they will do in the future is known as planning.

<h3>What is planning?</h3>

Planning simply means the process of thinking in order to achieve a desirable goal.

Planning is the process of making decisions about goals and activities that an organization will pursue in the future.

Organizations make plans in order to increase sales, revenue, etc.

Learn more about planning on:

brainly.com/question/25453419

6 0
2 years ago
A man aged 40 wishes to accumulate a fund for retirement by depositing $1,000 at the beginning of each year for 25 years. Strati
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

The man will made 15 drawins for 31,468 at their retirement age.

Explanation:

We solve for the future value of the annuity-due (deposits at the beginning)

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate}(1+r) = FV\\

C 1,000.00

time      25

rate         0.04

1000 \times \frac{(1+0.04)^{-25} -1}{0.04}(1+0.04) = PV\\

FV $375.1168

Now, we calcualte the amount of the withdrawals considering the new rate:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate}(1+r) = C\\

375.116802253964 \div \frac{1-(1+0.035)^{-15} }{0.035}(1+0.035) = C\\

C  $ 31.468

7 0
3 years ago
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