Answer:
B 8÷2
Step-by-step explanation:
because of pemdas.
Answer:
The correct option is;
d(t) = 6·cos(π/3·t) + 28
Step-by-step explanation:
The general form of a cosine function is given as follows;
y = A·cos(B·x - C) + D
Where;
A = The amplitude = The distance from the peak to the midline = 1/2×(Maximum - minimum)
The amplitude = 1/2 × (34 - 22) = 6 inches
B = 2·π/P = 2·π/6 = π/3
P = The period = 6 seconds
C/B = The phase shift
D = The midline = Minimum + Amplitude = 22 + 6 = 28 inches
x = The independent variable
Therefore, to model the function of the wave can be given as follows;
d(t) = 6·cos(π/3·t) + 28
Step-by-step explanation:
(log 0.04 − 2 log 0.3) / (1 − log 15)
<em>Change 1 to log 10.</em>
(log 0.04 − 2 log 0.3) / (log 10 − log 15)
<em>Use log property: a log b = log bᵃ.</em>
(log 0.04 − log 0.09) / (log 10 − log 15)
<em>Use log property: log a − log b = log (a/b).</em>
log (0.04/0.09) / log (10/15)
<em>Reduce fractions.</em>
log (4/9) / log (2/3)
<em>Change 4/9 to (2/3)².</em>
log ((2/3)²) / log (2/3)
<em>Use log property: log bᵃ = a log b.</em>
2 log (2/3) / log (2/3)
<em>Divide.</em>
2
-5 4/5 because it is less than -5
Answer:
For this problem first we need to figure out the covariance of the JP morgan
and its value is 24
Second we find expected return and standard deviation whose values are 9% and 34.98